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I've been going back and forth with the breast surgeons and attendings in my own department about cases like this that have been coming up a lot lately. Here's a hypothetical case:
56 year old woman with early breast cancer elects for mastectomy w/ sentinel lymph node procedure. Final pathology demonstrates a single area of G2 IDC 2.1cm in the UOQ, ER+, PR+, HER2-, widely negative margins, no LVI, no EIC. Immediate reconstruction performed and expander placed.
SLNBx final path shows 1/2 axillary LNs with micromet 1.0mm in size. No ALND performed.
Would you radiate this patient? Surgery is pushing not to radiate due to the risk of capsular contraction and impaired cosmesis. They do not want to do ALND, citing Z11. If no radiation, assuming the patient still has T1-2N1mi(sn), are there risk factors that would tip you over to radiating?
I have done my own literature search and come to my own conclusions, but I'm curious what others think before I give my (resident level) thoughts.
56 year old woman with early breast cancer elects for mastectomy w/ sentinel lymph node procedure. Final pathology demonstrates a single area of G2 IDC 2.1cm in the UOQ, ER+, PR+, HER2-, widely negative margins, no LVI, no EIC. Immediate reconstruction performed and expander placed.
SLNBx final path shows 1/2 axillary LNs with micromet 1.0mm in size. No ALND performed.
Would you radiate this patient? Surgery is pushing not to radiate due to the risk of capsular contraction and impaired cosmesis. They do not want to do ALND, citing Z11. If no radiation, assuming the patient still has T1-2N1mi(sn), are there risk factors that would tip you over to radiating?
I have done my own literature search and come to my own conclusions, but I'm curious what others think before I give my (resident level) thoughts.