Kaplan neuroanatomy figure (IV-4-17) legend says the below: Ipsilateral and below lesion: 1) impaired proprioception, vibration, 2-point discrimination, joint and position sensation 2) spastic weakness --> Shouldn't this be more like flaccid paralysis? Since hemisection of the spinal cord should give ipsilateral LMN signs, correct? So is Kaplan wrong about this? I looked at FA for Brown-Sequard syndrome and it says: Ipsilateral LMN signs such as flaccid paralysis at the level of the lesion, which I agree with. Can anyone confirm if Kaplan is wrong? Many thanks in advance.