In First Aid (p. 430), it says tramadol inhibits serotonin and NE re-uptake, but in general, opioids inhibit the release of neurotransmitter.
If I understand this correctly, in order to inhibit neurotransmission, wouldn't you want to prevent neurotransmitters from being in the extracellular area (ie synaptic cleft)? So, by decreasing the presence of neurotransmitter, you prevent neurotransmissions and thus pain sensation.
But why is it that for tramadol, it inhibits neurotransmitter reuptake, which essentially keeps neurotransmitters around. Wouldn't that keep NT around and thus promote neurotransmission?
Can someone please explain?
Thank you!
If I understand this correctly, in order to inhibit neurotransmission, wouldn't you want to prevent neurotransmitters from being in the extracellular area (ie synaptic cleft)? So, by decreasing the presence of neurotransmitter, you prevent neurotransmissions and thus pain sensation.
But why is it that for tramadol, it inhibits neurotransmitter reuptake, which essentially keeps neurotransmitters around. Wouldn't that keep NT around and thus promote neurotransmission?
Can someone please explain?
Thank you!