A
ahmead
1.In the mandibular first premolar, the occlusal dovetail of an ideal disto-occlusal amalgam preparation is usually not extended into the mesial fossa because of the
A. small lingual lobe.
B. large buccal cusp.
C. large buccal pulp horn.
D. prominent transverse ridge.
2.A protective mechanism of the dental pulp to
external irritation or caries is the formation of
A. pulp stones.
B. secondary dentin.
C. secondary cementum.
D. primary dentin.
3.The therapeutic index of a drug is the ratio of
A. the effective dose to the toxic dose.
B. half the toxic dose to half the effective dose.
C. the maximum tolerated dose to the minimum effective dose.
D. the lethal dose for 50of animals to the effective dose for 50of animals.
(please explain)
4.Tetracyclines
1. have no side effects.
2. may increase susceptibility to superinfections.
3. are safe to use during pregnancy.
4. have a wide spectrum of antibacterial activity.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
5. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding diazepam?
1. Its long duration of action is partly due to active metabolites.
2. It does not produce antianxiety effects after intramuscular administration.
3. Intravenous administration is more reliable than oral.
4.Its sedative effect can be reversed by naloxone.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
6.Epinephrine should NOT be used as a vasoconstrictor for patients with uncontrolled
A. hyperthyroidism.
B. hyperparathyroidism.
C. myxoedema.
D. asthma.
7.With the development of gingivitis, the sulcus becomes predominantly populated by
A. gram-positive organisms.
B. gram-negative organisms.
C. diplococcal organisms.
D. spirochetes.
(what about in acute and chronic periodontitis?)
8.Alveolar bone is undergoing remodeling
A. through the primary dentition.
B. until the end of mixed dentition.
C. until the complete eruption of permanent teeth.
D. throughout life.
9.In a 10-year old child with a normal mixed dentition and healthy periodontal tissues,removal of the labial frenum (frenectomy) is indicated when
A. the frenum is located at the mucogingival junction.
B. a diastema is present but the papilla does not blanch when tension is placed on the frenum.
C. the frenum is located on the attached gingiva.
D. None of the above.
10.Calculus contributes to gingival inflammation by:
A. having a porous surface.
B. having cytotoxic bacterial products.
C. favouring bacterial colonization.
D. all of the above.
11.During tooth development, vitamin A deficiency may result in
A. peg-shaped teeth.
B. partial anodontia (hypodontia).
C. Hutchinson's incisors.
D. enamel hypoplasia.
E. dentinogenesis imperfecta.
(what olso Vit A deficiency causes?)
12.Carious lesions are most likely to develop if a patient has
A. a high lactobacillus count.
B. saliva with low buffering capacity.
C. plaque on his teeth.
D. lactic acid in his mouth.
13.An increase of immunoglobulins is consistent with increased numbers of
A. fibroblasts.
B. neutrophils.
C. lymphocytes.
D. plasma cells.
14.In periodontics, the best prognosis for bone regeneration follows the surgical treatment of
A. suprabony pockets.
B. one-wall infrabony pockets.
C. two-wall infrabony pockets.
D. three-wall infrabony pockets.
15.The most important diagnostic element in assessing the periodontal status of a patient is
A. the results of vitality testing.
B. the radiographic appearance.
C. the depth of periodontal pockets.
D. the mobility of the teeth.
16.The higher modulus of elasticity of a chromium-cobalt-nickel alloy, compared to a Type IV gold alloy, means that chromiumcobalt- nickel partial denture clasp will require
A. a heavier cross section for a clasp arm.
B. a shorter retentive arm.
C. more taper.
D. a shallower undercut.
(explain please)
17.A cast post and core is used to:
1. provide intraradicular venting.
2. strengthen a weakened tooth.
3. redirect the forces of occlusion.
4. provide retention for a cast crown.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
18.At his first post-insertion appointment, a patient with a new removable partial denture complains of a tender abutment tooth. The most likely cause is
A. overextended borders of the partial.
B. inadequate polishing of the framework.
C. improper path of insertion.
D. the occlusion.
19.Normal sulcular epithelium in man is
1. non-keratinized.
2. squamous.
3. stratified.
4. non-permeable.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
20.Periodontal pocket epithelium
A. is NOT colonized by bacteria.
B. does NOT contain anatomically and physiologically distinct zones.
C. is a site where immunological elements interact with pocket bacteria.
D. does NOT provide a barrier against bacterial penetration.
21.When used for conscious sedation, nitrous oxide may
1. produce signs of inherent myocardial depression.
2. produce an indirect sympathomimetic action.
3. cause the patient to sweat.
4. produce numbness of the extremities.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
22.An excess of which hormone is associated with increased sensitivity to epinephrine?
A. Testosterone.
B. Parathyroid hormone.
C. Insulin.
D. Thyroxin.
E. Estrogen.
23.Using pins to retain amalgam restorations increases the risk of
1. cracks in the teeth.
2. pulp exposures.
3. thermal sensitivity.
4. periodontal ligament invasion.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
24.The area of the tooth that is most sensitive during cavity preparation is
A. dentin.
B. cementum.
C. cementoenamel junction.
D. dentinoenamel junction.
25.Which of the following is/are (a) useful guide(s) in determining a patients occlusal vertical dimension?
1. Appearance.
2. Phonetics.
3. Observation of the rest position.
4. Pre-extraction profile records.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only.
E. All of the above.
26.The extension of the lingual anterior border of a mandibular denture is limited by the
A. mylohyoid muscle.
B. geniohyoid muscle.
C. genioglossus muscle.
D. fibres of the digastric muscle.
27.To improve denture stability, mandibular molar teeth should normally be placed
A. over the crest of the mandibular ridge.
B. buccal to the crest of the mandibular ridge.
C. over the buccal shelf area.
D. lingual to the crest of the mandibular ridge.
28.Before performing surgery on a patient who is taking warfarin, which of the following should be evaluated?
A. Bleeding time.
B. Clotting time.
C. Prothrombin time.
D. Coagulation time.
29.A removable orthodontic appliance, producing a light force on the labial of a proclined maxillary central incisor will cause:
A. lingual movement of the crown and lingual movement of the root apex.
B. intrusion of the central incisor and lingual movement of the crown.
C. lingual movement of the crown and labial movement of the root apex.
D. intrusion of the central incisor.
30.Excessive orthodontic force used to move a tooth may
1. cause hyalinization.
2. cause root resorption.
3. crush the periodontal ligament.
4. impair tooth movement.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
31.The best space maintainer to prevent the lingual collapse that often occurs following the early loss of a mandibular primary canine is a:
A. Nance expansion arch.
B. lingual arch.
C. band and loop space maintainer.
D. distal shoe space maintainer.
32.When a radiographic examination is warranted for a 10-year old child, the most effective way to decrease radiation exposure is to:
A. use a thyroid collar and lead apron.
B. apply a radiation protection badge.
C. use high speed film.
D. decrease the kilovoltage to 50kVp.
E. take a panoramic film only.
33.Pain and difficulty on swallowing, trismus and a displaced uvula are signs and symptoms of infection of which one of the following spaces?
A. Submandibular.
B. Lateral parapharyngeal.
C. Sublingual.
D. Deep temporal.
E. Submasseteric.
thanx in advance
ahmed
A. small lingual lobe.
B. large buccal cusp.
C. large buccal pulp horn.
D. prominent transverse ridge.
2.A protective mechanism of the dental pulp to
external irritation or caries is the formation of
A. pulp stones.
B. secondary dentin.
C. secondary cementum.
D. primary dentin.
3.The therapeutic index of a drug is the ratio of
A. the effective dose to the toxic dose.
B. half the toxic dose to half the effective dose.
C. the maximum tolerated dose to the minimum effective dose.
D. the lethal dose for 50of animals to the effective dose for 50of animals.
(please explain)
4.Tetracyclines
1. have no side effects.
2. may increase susceptibility to superinfections.
3. are safe to use during pregnancy.
4. have a wide spectrum of antibacterial activity.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
5. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding diazepam?
1. Its long duration of action is partly due to active metabolites.
2. It does not produce antianxiety effects after intramuscular administration.
3. Intravenous administration is more reliable than oral.
4.Its sedative effect can be reversed by naloxone.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
6.Epinephrine should NOT be used as a vasoconstrictor for patients with uncontrolled
A. hyperthyroidism.
B. hyperparathyroidism.
C. myxoedema.
D. asthma.
7.With the development of gingivitis, the sulcus becomes predominantly populated by
A. gram-positive organisms.
B. gram-negative organisms.
C. diplococcal organisms.
D. spirochetes.
(what about in acute and chronic periodontitis?)
8.Alveolar bone is undergoing remodeling
A. through the primary dentition.
B. until the end of mixed dentition.
C. until the complete eruption of permanent teeth.
D. throughout life.
9.In a 10-year old child with a normal mixed dentition and healthy periodontal tissues,removal of the labial frenum (frenectomy) is indicated when
A. the frenum is located at the mucogingival junction.
B. a diastema is present but the papilla does not blanch when tension is placed on the frenum.
C. the frenum is located on the attached gingiva.
D. None of the above.
10.Calculus contributes to gingival inflammation by:
A. having a porous surface.
B. having cytotoxic bacterial products.
C. favouring bacterial colonization.
D. all of the above.
11.During tooth development, vitamin A deficiency may result in
A. peg-shaped teeth.
B. partial anodontia (hypodontia).
C. Hutchinson's incisors.
D. enamel hypoplasia.
E. dentinogenesis imperfecta.
(what olso Vit A deficiency causes?)
12.Carious lesions are most likely to develop if a patient has
A. a high lactobacillus count.
B. saliva with low buffering capacity.
C. plaque on his teeth.
D. lactic acid in his mouth.
13.An increase of immunoglobulins is consistent with increased numbers of
A. fibroblasts.
B. neutrophils.
C. lymphocytes.
D. plasma cells.
14.In periodontics, the best prognosis for bone regeneration follows the surgical treatment of
A. suprabony pockets.
B. one-wall infrabony pockets.
C. two-wall infrabony pockets.
D. three-wall infrabony pockets.
15.The most important diagnostic element in assessing the periodontal status of a patient is
A. the results of vitality testing.
B. the radiographic appearance.
C. the depth of periodontal pockets.
D. the mobility of the teeth.
16.The higher modulus of elasticity of a chromium-cobalt-nickel alloy, compared to a Type IV gold alloy, means that chromiumcobalt- nickel partial denture clasp will require
A. a heavier cross section for a clasp arm.
B. a shorter retentive arm.
C. more taper.
D. a shallower undercut.
(explain please)
17.A cast post and core is used to:
1. provide intraradicular venting.
2. strengthen a weakened tooth.
3. redirect the forces of occlusion.
4. provide retention for a cast crown.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
18.At his first post-insertion appointment, a patient with a new removable partial denture complains of a tender abutment tooth. The most likely cause is
A. overextended borders of the partial.
B. inadequate polishing of the framework.
C. improper path of insertion.
D. the occlusion.
19.Normal sulcular epithelium in man is
1. non-keratinized.
2. squamous.
3. stratified.
4. non-permeable.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
20.Periodontal pocket epithelium
A. is NOT colonized by bacteria.
B. does NOT contain anatomically and physiologically distinct zones.
C. is a site where immunological elements interact with pocket bacteria.
D. does NOT provide a barrier against bacterial penetration.
21.When used for conscious sedation, nitrous oxide may
1. produce signs of inherent myocardial depression.
2. produce an indirect sympathomimetic action.
3. cause the patient to sweat.
4. produce numbness of the extremities.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
22.An excess of which hormone is associated with increased sensitivity to epinephrine?
A. Testosterone.
B. Parathyroid hormone.
C. Insulin.
D. Thyroxin.
E. Estrogen.
23.Using pins to retain amalgam restorations increases the risk of
1. cracks in the teeth.
2. pulp exposures.
3. thermal sensitivity.
4. periodontal ligament invasion.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
24.The area of the tooth that is most sensitive during cavity preparation is
A. dentin.
B. cementum.
C. cementoenamel junction.
D. dentinoenamel junction.
25.Which of the following is/are (a) useful guide(s) in determining a patients occlusal vertical dimension?
1. Appearance.
2. Phonetics.
3. Observation of the rest position.
4. Pre-extraction profile records.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only.
E. All of the above.
26.The extension of the lingual anterior border of a mandibular denture is limited by the
A. mylohyoid muscle.
B. geniohyoid muscle.
C. genioglossus muscle.
D. fibres of the digastric muscle.
27.To improve denture stability, mandibular molar teeth should normally be placed
A. over the crest of the mandibular ridge.
B. buccal to the crest of the mandibular ridge.
C. over the buccal shelf area.
D. lingual to the crest of the mandibular ridge.
28.Before performing surgery on a patient who is taking warfarin, which of the following should be evaluated?
A. Bleeding time.
B. Clotting time.
C. Prothrombin time.
D. Coagulation time.
29.A removable orthodontic appliance, producing a light force on the labial of a proclined maxillary central incisor will cause:
A. lingual movement of the crown and lingual movement of the root apex.
B. intrusion of the central incisor and lingual movement of the crown.
C. lingual movement of the crown and labial movement of the root apex.
D. intrusion of the central incisor.
30.Excessive orthodontic force used to move a tooth may
1. cause hyalinization.
2. cause root resorption.
3. crush the periodontal ligament.
4. impair tooth movement.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
31.The best space maintainer to prevent the lingual collapse that often occurs following the early loss of a mandibular primary canine is a:
A. Nance expansion arch.
B. lingual arch.
C. band and loop space maintainer.
D. distal shoe space maintainer.
32.When a radiographic examination is warranted for a 10-year old child, the most effective way to decrease radiation exposure is to:
A. use a thyroid collar and lead apron.
B. apply a radiation protection badge.
C. use high speed film.
D. decrease the kilovoltage to 50kVp.
E. take a panoramic film only.
33.Pain and difficulty on swallowing, trismus and a displaced uvula are signs and symptoms of infection of which one of the following spaces?
A. Submandibular.
B. Lateral parapharyngeal.
C. Sublingual.
D. Deep temporal.
E. Submasseteric.
thanx in advance
ahmed
