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Background: my hospital has no epi abbojects because of a shortage. They are using multi dose 1:1000 vials even in code carts.
So had a recent code (drop off heroin OD). Pulsleless, apneic, etc.
Called for a few doses of epi and after the third dose, noted that they were giving 1:1000 IV instead of 1:10k. I asked them to dilute in 9ml saline going forward.
So the guy ended up OK-ish. Got ROSC but low EF. Unclear Neuro status. Currently requiring pressors.
Anyway, here's the question: does 1:1000 vs 1:10000 matter in a pulseless patient? It's still 1mg either way. Does it matter if you are giving it in an IV with wide open fluids? Would you bother diluting in that situation?
So had a recent code (drop off heroin OD). Pulsleless, apneic, etc.
Called for a few doses of epi and after the third dose, noted that they were giving 1:1000 IV instead of 1:10k. I asked them to dilute in 9ml saline going forward.
So the guy ended up OK-ish. Got ROSC but low EF. Unclear Neuro status. Currently requiring pressors.
Anyway, here's the question: does 1:1000 vs 1:10000 matter in a pulseless patient? It's still 1mg either way. Does it matter if you are giving it in an IV with wide open fluids? Would you bother diluting in that situation?
