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Kaplan anatomy explains that palm sensation is not affected by carpal tunnel sydrome; the superficial palmar cutaneous branch of median nerve passes superficial to the carpal tunnel.
So, basically some branches of the nerve responsible for palm sensation does not go through the carpal tunnel, correct?
But then, Kaplan also explains under Carpel Tunnel Syndrome, "There is also sensory loss and numbness on the palmar surfaces of the lateral 3 1/2 digits."
I find these two conflicting. Can anyone help me out? Many thanks in advance.
So, basically some branches of the nerve responsible for palm sensation does not go through the carpal tunnel, correct?
But then, Kaplan also explains under Carpel Tunnel Syndrome, "There is also sensory loss and numbness on the palmar surfaces of the lateral 3 1/2 digits."
I find these two conflicting. Can anyone help me out? Many thanks in advance.