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I know catatonia is usually associated with psychotic disorders, but in rare cases, can it occur in sever major depressive episodes. How frequently does that happen?
I know catatonia is usually associated with psychotic disorders, but in rare cases, can it occur in sever major depressive episodes. How frequently does that happen?
Source?Catatonia due to an underlying psychiatric condition is actually significantly more likely to represent a severe depression than a primary psychotic disorder. So, not that unusual.
Don't forget autism and catatonia.
Challenging to give clear demographic data because rigorous application of criteria will make it far more common than actually diagnosed, and my intuition is that especially applies in medical settings.
In terms of current nosology the best paper is by Peralta and Cuesta, who are some of the clearest thinkers in terms of phenomenology based diagnoses: Motor features in psychotic disorders. II. Development of diagnostic criteria for catatonia. - PubMed - NCBI They meticulously drew from the various descriptions the most consistent symptoms and then culstered them, producing catatonic and non catatonic groups. They found that all catatonic subjects met at least 3 of the criteria. Unfortunately the didn't label diagnoses beyond that schizophrenia was more prevalent in the non catatonic grouping.
As far as other illnesses- yes, you can get catatonic-looking syndromes, but is it the same? Maybe for anti-NMDA encephalitis/PCP intoxication since this is reasonably well described and mimics SCZ psychosis. The literature on everything else is so poor I'm not convinced it's the same syndrome (or if the raters knew what they were doing when the used the BFRS). Autism is an interesting case- Bleuler of course consider "autism" to be a hallmark attribute of schizophrenia and we know the shared genetic overlap/epidemiology/etc etc etc. Some of our child attendings are world renowned autism experts (in genetics, epidemiology, and neuroimaging) and said that they believe that this is a true catatonic syndrome (interestingly it happens in some of the higher functioning, formerly Aspberger type patients)
Okay, I appreciate your guys' interest in history, but I guess mine is just general interest? For example, say you are in an inpatient setting you have a patient, who came in overnight. They were mobile at that point. You are seeing the patient for the first time. You have little history on them. The patient is kind of "media text-book cationic" (lack better words my friends, lack of better words). Basically, they aren't moving or are barely moving. They aren't responding to you. They are breathing all that fun stuff. Maybe they are sitting up. Maybe they are leaning against a wall. (Take your pick.) I, presume of course, you are going to give them meds to get them out of this state, but would your first bet. (If you had to bet, be psychosis related or mood related.) Obviously, I know there's a lot of grey area here. Let me know if you need me to make up some additions to this little scenario. I do appreciate the discourse. I just kind of have a fascination with this particular issue but not enough to go into psych.
No, I was asking about information about catalonia in general for a lay person relating to psychosis and mood disorders. I was asking for some specifics such as, prevalence (data is always nice) and the difference between how cataonia is portrayed in the media vs. the real world. I specifically said I knew I left a lot out of that scenario, as I am an interested party but I am not psych. I am math/sci. I stated that I was leaving the door open to add to the scenario. I am certainly not just looking to upthread to an already answered question. Unless, perhaps I am missing something? I guess, other than my more direct questions, perhaps someone could link me to some fairly readable papers? Like I said I'm not psych, but I have taken all the core sciences, math, a&p, and one pharm class from years ago..........(insert long story). Maybe I could understand a fairly readable paper?So you are asking "if someone is catatonic, is it mood-related or psychosis-related?" Apart from the conversation upthread having directly addressed this question, if we are just talking about playing the numbers, probably this person has had a history of affective illness at some point in the past.
That is strictly an issue of priors and being a Bayesian about it. Nothing in your scenario really pushes it in one direction or another.
So what exactly are you asking?No, I was asking about information about catalonia in general for a lay person relating to psychosis and mood disorders. I was asking for some specifics such as, prevalence (data is always nice) and the difference between how cataonia is portrayed in the media vs. the real world. I specifically said I knew I left a lot out of that scenario, as I am an interested party but I am not psych. I am math/sci. I stated that I was leaving the door open to add to the scenario. I am certainly not just looking to upthread to an already answered question. Unless, perhaps I am missing something? I guess, other than my more direct questions, perhaps someone could link me to some fairly readable papers? Like I said I'm not psych, but I have taken all the core sciences, math, a&p, and one pharm class from years ago..........(insert long story). Maybe I could understand a fairly readable paper?
My understanding is that Catalonia is now undergoing some uncertainty about its status as an independent region in Spain.No, I was asking about information about catalonia in general for a lay person ....
Obviously, I am not be clear. How can I help clear up my language?So what exactly are you asking?
Obviously, I am not be clear. How can I help clear up my language?