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one of the ob/gyn surg CCS case says we need to order PREop thromboprophylaxis for an ob/gyn patient undergoing laparotomy for bilateral salpingo oophorectomy + hysterectomy 2/2 ovarian cancer, shouldn't it be POST-op prophylaxis? This must be a typo, I thought we automatically stop heparin (LMWH or UFH), warfarin prior to surg, even prior to any surgery in a patient who really needs to be on thromboprophylaxis like for example prior to a CABG in a patient with triple vessel disease
Is it because the risk of bleeding is so small w/ a gyn surgery vs a thoracic surgery. Naturally the patient could lose a lot more blood in open heart surg vs laparotomy. But I mean if we stop heparin prior to delivery cause of risk of epidural hematoma from a spinal block in labor, why would we do LMWH during a laparotomy?? Seems like risk of bleeding is higher...
I know stopping aspirin prior to surgery is an iffy area, but I was under the assumption we automatically stop anticoags prior to any surg, at least for CCS.
sorry if this seems like a dumb question, I am posting at the risk of embarrassing the medical community. I feel like this should be basic knowledge
Is it because the risk of bleeding is so small w/ a gyn surgery vs a thoracic surgery. Naturally the patient could lose a lot more blood in open heart surg vs laparotomy. But I mean if we stop heparin prior to delivery cause of risk of epidural hematoma from a spinal block in labor, why would we do LMWH during a laparotomy?? Seems like risk of bleeding is higher...
I know stopping aspirin prior to surgery is an iffy area, but I was under the assumption we automatically stop anticoags prior to any surg, at least for CCS.
sorry if this seems like a dumb question, I am posting at the risk of embarrassing the medical community. I feel like this should be basic knowledge