I'm writing down a case report about a really interesting case at our hospital, the history is 28 years long and I would like to discuss it later in other thread when I have enough time but for now I have this question:
Is "Man-in-the-barrel syndrome" equivalent to "Central cord syndrome"? if not what's the difference? And any articles or references proving your answer would be highly appreciated!
This case is typical for "man-in-the-barrel syndrome" with failure of abduction of the arms (among other signs) but the MRI findings are not very typical for Central cord syndrome (the lesion is slightly anterior rather than typically central)
Many thanks!
Is "Man-in-the-barrel syndrome" equivalent to "Central cord syndrome"? if not what's the difference? And any articles or references proving your answer would be highly appreciated!
This case is typical for "man-in-the-barrel syndrome" with failure of abduction of the arms (among other signs) but the MRI findings are not very typical for Central cord syndrome (the lesion is slightly anterior rather than typically central)
Many thanks!