chromatids

[dat_student]

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Test #2, question 5

All of the following statements concerning meiosis are true EXCEPT

B) Chromatids are pulled towards the same poles during anaphase
D) The second meiotic division is also know as the reduction division

Kaplan says B is the only false statement
D seems more correct (i.e. more false). Isn't the 1st meiotic division the reduction phase? After meiosis I we only have one of each pair of homologous chromosomes?

B is at least semi-correct. In meiosis I, chromatids go to the same pole and homologous chromosomes go to opposite poles. Am I wrong????

Any ideas?!

 

[themarvinh]

i think D is true. you start with 2N, after meiosis 1 you still have 2N but then after meiosis 2 your haploid (1N). correct me if im wrong

 

[vikings022000]

i think D is true. you start with 2N, after meiosis 1 you still have 2N but then after meiosis 2 your haploid (1N). correct me if im wrong

i thought after meiosis 1 you had N.

 

[dat_student]

i thought after meiosis 1 you had N.

yes, after "M I" you have haploid cells. that's the problem with kaplan's answer.

 

[themarvinh]

ohh looked it up, your right

 

[Flipper405]

Test #2, question 5

All of the following statements concerning meiosis are true EXCEPT

B) Chromatids are pulled towards the same poles during anaphase
D) The second meiotic division is also know as the reduction division

Kaplan says B is the only false statement
D seems more correct (i.e. more false). Isn't the 1st meiotic division the reduction phase? After meiosis I we only have one of each pair of homologous chromosomes?

B is at least semi-correct. In meiosis I, chromatids go to the same pole and homologous chromosomes go to opposite poles. Am I wrong????

Any ideas?!

I guess the thing that makes it false is that chromatids go to opposite poles in meiosis II.

I have never heard the term reduction division. Based on a quick google search, reduction division can mean anything from the whole process of meiosis to meiosis I; I didn't see it anywhere referring to meiosis II. I saw one source saying that meiosis I is called "reduction" and meiosis II is "division". However, a few places also said the term is outdated, so I don't know... Seems like a bad question.

 

[IcemanDDS]

Hmm, I'm pretty sure that after meiosis I you have diploid, then after meiosis II you have haploid gametes. But I'll look it up.

 

[puncho]

yeah I get confused w/ this N/2N numbering sometimes too...

2N = 46 chromosomes no?

So since you double the amount of chromosomes during interphase, at the start of mitosis/meiosis shouldn't you have 4N or a pair of 2N chromosomes?

So in the case of meiosis, wouldn't you have a pair of 2N at the prophase, 2 2N diploid cells at the end of meiosis I, and then 4 N haploid cells at the end of meiosis II?

 

[RaiderNation]

I guess the thing that makes it false is that chromatids go to opposite poles in meiosis II.

I have never heard the term reduction division. Based on a quick google search, reduction division can mean anything from the whole process of meiosis to meiosis I; I didn't see it anywhere referring to meiosis II. I saw one source saying that meiosis I is called "reduction" and meiosis II is "division". However, a few places also said the term is outdated, so I don't know... Seems like a bad question.

That's what I was thinking. The chromatids are going in opposite directions. It is confusing how the answer is worded. It says they are all pulled towards the same polls, as in more than one poll. Well, they are pulled towards "polls" but not the same poll. All in all it's just a crappy question.

 

[dat_student]

Hmm, I'm pretty sure that after meiosis I you have diploid, then after meiosis II you have haploid gametes. But I'll look it up.

and I am pretty sure we get haploid cells after meiosis I 😉

 

[IcemanDDS]

yeah I get confused w/ this N/2N numbering sometimes too...

2N = 46 chromosomes no?

So since you double the amount of chromosomes during interphase, at the start of mitosis/meiosis shouldn't you have 4N or a pair of 2N chromosomes?

So in the case of meiosis, wouldn't you have a pair of 2N at the prophase, 2 2N diploid cells at the end of meiosis I, and then 4 N haploid cells at the end of meiosis II?

Ok I just looked it up, and what puncho said is right. You do not have haploid (N) cells after meiosis I. You start out with 2N at prophase, and after disjunction and all, you end up with N after telophase II, not telophase I.