So I'm a bit confused as to why FAP is autosomal dominant if you still have a healthy APC gene on the other chromosome.
Is it because that after you have the inherited mutation, you are nearly 100% bound to get a second-hit to the second, normal APC gene, thereby resulting in adenomatous polyp formation?
When we say autosomal dominant here, are we essentially saying that the phenotype is "increased risk for cancer" meaning a mutation of just one APC gene puts you at increased risk for CA?
Is it because that after you have the inherited mutation, you are nearly 100% bound to get a second-hit to the second, normal APC gene, thereby resulting in adenomatous polyp formation?
When we say autosomal dominant here, are we essentially saying that the phenotype is "increased risk for cancer" meaning a mutation of just one APC gene puts you at increased risk for CA?