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I have annotated in my FA from Kaplan QBank that sulfonylureas are the first-line Tx in DM-II. I even specifically recall having selected metformin as the answer to one of their quesions for 1st-line Tx in DM-II, but sulfonylureas was the correct answer. They specifically said sulfonylureas are first-line Tx over metformin based on the higher risk of side-effects with the latter.
Anyway, p. 333 of FA says for biguanides: "first-line therapy in type 2 DM."
Does anyone have any thoughts on this?
Anyway, p. 333 of FA says for biguanides: "first-line therapy in type 2 DM."
Does anyone have any thoughts on this?