Isn't immunoblastic simply a morphologic descriptor? I don't think saying a tumor is the immunoblastic variant of DLBCL implies that it was derived from an immunoblast. And I would expect that most immunoblastic variants would classify as the ABC subtype, as defined by gene expression profiling (which is the gold standard). Forget the Hans algorithm . . . it is sufficiently crappy and can be forgotten.
Correct, it is a morphologic descriptor. That is why I said "in most cases". The Hans algorithm is nice and all and may accurately profile ~90% of cases. The other 10%, of course, don't quite fit the gene expression profiling to the tee. Hence, there are other algorithms like the Tally method, Choi, etc. It never ends.
In private practice, the oncologists don't seem to care. It seems like if you do more than a CD20 and CD3 and maybe a Ki67, you're going overboard. Everyone seemed to care more before Rituximab, though
🙂 I always try to at least make a best effort to sub-classify any DLBCL I get because I know that a good portion of my cases inevitably end up going to MD Anderson for review.
As for the statement above, "I thought a DLBCL was always derived from cells at germinal center or post-germinal center differentiation but an immunoblast doesn't participate in a germinal center reaction"... you have to remember that DLBCL, by definition, is simply "a neoplasm of large B lymphoid cells with nuclear size equal to or exceeding normal macrophage nuclei or more than twice the size of a normal lymphocyte." If you read the 2008 WHO you'll notice that they expand on a few different subtypes of DLBCL that were never fully classified before in the 2001 WHO and so forth. So, in essence, when you say "DLBCL", you really are just talking about a morphologic definition.
And about immunoblasts... I consider immunoblasts (and so do most immunologists, I hope) to be activated B or T-cells. Everything I say from this point forward is related to B-cell immunoblasts only, but these cells are mature and have undergone V(D)J rearrangement. So, I think that your picture has to be at least somewhat flawed or is missing a few arrows. B-Immunoblasts have the potential to give rise to plasma cells. We all know what plasma cells do, right? They make tons and tons of Ig, which also has to be somewhat specific. How did they get to be so specific in the first place? Think about early B-cell maturation in the germinal center and the process known as negative selection.
I know I made a weird circular argument, but I haven't had my coffee yet
🙂