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I'm currently working on a new post for my website which will present a collection of research studies that show how common it is for asymptomatic individuals to have lumbar spine pathology on MRI.
This got me wondering, how many pain physicians require an MRI of an area before injecting? How recent?
Finally, if the MRI findings differ from the patient's history and physical exam, which one wins in the decision where to inject. The obvious answer to me is, treat the patient, not the film; but I've seen the opposite done too many times. Of course if the difference is just one level (MRI shows far lateral disc herniation contacting the exiting nerve root of L4, while the dermatomal pattern and weakness of the patient is L5), a two-level TFESI will be done. But I've seen where the patient has what appears to be textbook facet-mediated pain, but then the MRI is looked at and shows spinal stenosis and displacement of exiting nerve root (yada yada yada), but no facet arthropathy.....so the patient gets the ESI.
Just curious what you all think. Thanks.
This got me wondering, how many pain physicians require an MRI of an area before injecting? How recent?
Finally, if the MRI findings differ from the patient's history and physical exam, which one wins in the decision where to inject. The obvious answer to me is, treat the patient, not the film; but I've seen the opposite done too many times. Of course if the difference is just one level (MRI shows far lateral disc herniation contacting the exiting nerve root of L4, while the dermatomal pattern and weakness of the patient is L5), a two-level TFESI will be done. But I've seen where the patient has what appears to be textbook facet-mediated pain, but then the MRI is looked at and shows spinal stenosis and displacement of exiting nerve root (yada yada yada), but no facet arthropathy.....so the patient gets the ESI.
Just curious what you all think. Thanks.