Colorblindness is sex linked recessive. If a colorblind man and a heterozygous female have two boys and two girls, what's the probability that at least one of the girls will be colorblind?
A) 0%
B) 50%
C) 75%
D) 100%
Answer: C
Wut 😕
If you draw out a punnet square, one of the girls is heterozygous and the other is colorblind, which is 50%. EK says 75% because there's a 50% chance that one is colorblind, so there's a 25% chance that both are, therefore 75%. If this is how you calculate phenotypic probabilities, doesn't that mean that punnett squares always underestimate the number of phenotypes in a population? Is this question unique because they say at least 1?
Edit: I get that you have two crosses and each is independent so it's a 50% probability of having a color blind girl each time, but I still don't get how they reached 75%
A) 0%
B) 50%
C) 75%
D) 100%
Answer: C
Wut 😕
If you draw out a punnet square, one of the girls is heterozygous and the other is colorblind, which is 50%. EK says 75% because there's a 50% chance that one is colorblind, so there's a 25% chance that both are, therefore 75%. If this is how you calculate phenotypic probabilities, doesn't that mean that punnett squares always underestimate the number of phenotypes in a population? Is this question unique because they say at least 1?
Edit: I get that you have two crosses and each is independent so it's a 50% probability of having a color blind girl each time, but I still don't get how they reached 75%
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