Hi everyone,
In my TPRH book it says that you can have a situation where the electric field is zero, but the potential is not.
The example they give is: two equal charges of the same sign, +Q and +Q, separated by a distance d.
They said the potential at the point midway between them would be 2k(+Q)/(1/2d), but the electric field would be 0.
Can somebody explain how the field would be 0?
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So I did a quick search online, and saw put that electric field = 0 if the charges have the same sign and magnitude. But I'm having trouble understanding this, and proving it mathematically with the electric field equation: E=kQ/r^2
In my TPRH book it says that you can have a situation where the electric field is zero, but the potential is not.
The example they give is: two equal charges of the same sign, +Q and +Q, separated by a distance d.
They said the potential at the point midway between them would be 2k(+Q)/(1/2d), but the electric field would be 0.
Can somebody explain how the field would be 0?
----
So I did a quick search online, and saw put that electric field = 0 if the charges have the same sign and magnitude. But I'm having trouble understanding this, and proving it mathematically with the electric field equation: E=kQ/r^2
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