H HelpPleaseMD Full Member 10+ Year Member Apr 30, 2012 #1 Advertisement - Members don't see this ad Can someone please explain why strokes affecting the anterior spinal artery would lead to contralateral /ipsi of anything? Isn't the ACA 1 artery that supplies both sides ?
Advertisement - Members don't see this ad Can someone please explain why strokes affecting the anterior spinal artery would lead to contralateral /ipsi of anything? Isn't the ACA 1 artery that supplies both sides ?
ijn Membership Revoked Removed 10+ Year Member Apr 30, 2012 #2 The artery has to split into two at some point. Obstruction at that point would only affect half of the spinal cord. Upvote 0 Downvote
The artery has to split into two at some point. Obstruction at that point would only affect half of the spinal cord.
