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was doing a Mksap question, where an elderly patient comes into the ER with a SDH and mass effect, very symptomatic, Afib+coumadin with an INR=12. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
my answer was FFP (and ~79% percent agreed).
But the correct answer was iv Vit K+prothombin complex concentrate.
Really? Isn't this a dire situation that requires immediate correction, wouldn't FFP provide that? (I understand that patient would likely need long term Vit K, you could start it at the same as the FFP). How many ER physicians know how to find 'prothombin complex concentrate'? Everybody's got FFP on standby, no?
my answer was FFP (and ~79% percent agreed).
But the correct answer was iv Vit K+prothombin complex concentrate.
Really? Isn't this a dire situation that requires immediate correction, wouldn't FFP provide that? (I understand that patient would likely need long term Vit K, you could start it at the same as the FFP). How many ER physicians know how to find 'prothombin complex concentrate'? Everybody's got FFP on standby, no?