First Aid 2013 Errata posted

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Confused a little on one of their statements:


Page 136 Salmonella vs. Shigella

Under the column for Shigella, note that antibiotic therapy shortens the duration of organism excretion (shedding) in the stool.



Maybe its just me, but the wording really sucks.

Are they trying to say that antibiotics help with Shigella (vs. Salmonella were they don't)?


Thanks.
 
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Confused a little on one of their statements:


Page 136 Salmonella vs. Shigella

Under the column for Shigella, note that antibiotic therapy shortens the duration of organism excretion (shedding) in the stool.



Maybe its just me, but the wording really sucks.

Are they trying to say that antibiotics help with Shigella (vs. Salmonella were they don't)?


Thanks.

anyone?
 
EDIT: just reread your question and caught something: it doesn't say it shortens excretion, it says it prolongs excretion...there's your confusion

The errata actually says that it shortens excretion. (they changed it from prolongs to shortens)
 
My understanding from this (I haven't reviewed it yet, though) is that in Shigella, antibiotic therapy decreases the amount of time that the infected person is shedding Shigella in the stool, thereby shortening the time that they can possibly cause infection to spread to someone else. I'm not sure about its comparison to Salmonella, though...maybe antibiotics don't decrease the duration of stool shedding in Salmonella?

 
I wonder if the shorter errata is just because it's the first one posted. Does anyone remember how long the first errata was when it came out for 2012?
 
My understanding from this (I haven't reviewed it yet, though) is that in Shigella, antibiotic therapy decreases the amount of time that the infected person is shedding Shigella in the stool, thereby shortening the time that they can possibly cause infection to spread to someone else. I'm not sure about its comparison to Salmonella, though...maybe antibiotics don't decrease the duration of stool shedding in Salmonella?

You almost never give Abx for salmonella (except sepsis, dunno about osteomyelitis) because it increases possibility of transmission...I can't remember off the top of my head what the rationale is.
 
On Pg. 356, under G6PD Deficiency, FA says "RBCs primarily destroyed extravascularly."

Both Pathoma and Goljan RR Path say that G6PD Deficiency is primarily intravascular hemolysis.

Can anyone comment on this? Thanks.
 
On Pg. 356, under G6PD Deficiency, FA says "RBCs primarily destroyed extravascularly."

Both Pathoma and Goljan RR Path say that G6PD Deficiency is primarily intravascular hemolysis.

Can anyone comment on this? Thanks.

I think this has been a raging debate for a while...the answer is both but there's different answers on which on predominates.
 
It probably is dependent on how much stress the person's RBC's are experiencing at the time. Low stress -> extravascular, high stress -> intravascular
 
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