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- Jun 19, 2005
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hi was wondering why is it that FM income is usually lower than peds or im. It seems to me that a physician able to see young and old would have a larger patient base...whats up? Some possible reasons im COMPLETELEY guessing is:
1) FM work less hours...but i thgouht the hours were really really close with IM?
2) No hospital stuff for some groups...although i thought no traveling to the hospital would = see more office patients = more money....?
3) FM tend to see more patients with medicaid/medicare...but then i thought that IM has a lot of these patients too...?
4) IM docs tend to add procedures to their practice...but FMs also like doing that too i though?
5)h yea, i also heard that group practices with greater than 5 physicians (assuming sufficient patient base) in typical areas are able to bring in the average easily with good hours. Is practice structure one possible reason for the disparity between fm vs. other pcps
Thanks in advance for your thoughts. In essence,do FM docs have lower salaries on surveys because of their own decisions or because of something thats out of their hands.
1) FM work less hours...but i thgouht the hours were really really close with IM?
2) No hospital stuff for some groups...although i thought no traveling to the hospital would = see more office patients = more money....?
3) FM tend to see more patients with medicaid/medicare...but then i thought that IM has a lot of these patients too...?
4) IM docs tend to add procedures to their practice...but FMs also like doing that too i though?
5)h yea, i also heard that group practices with greater than 5 physicians (assuming sufficient patient base) in typical areas are able to bring in the average easily with good hours. Is practice structure one possible reason for the disparity between fm vs. other pcps
Thanks in advance for your thoughts. In essence,do FM docs have lower salaries on surveys because of their own decisions or because of something thats out of their hands.