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Hello, currently doing a urology rotation for my surgical elective. I was discussing the use of PSA with my attending and I've been trying to look up the following question:
Why is a high free PSA favorable in the evaluation of possible prostate cancer (what is it about high free PSA that makes this the case)?
I've been reviewing articles and reading our urology textbook (Smith & Tanagho 18e) but so far all that I can come up with is that if the %free PSA is high that means the bound PSA (active) % is low, which overall is consistent with what is found in men WITHOUT prostate cancer. I am deducing that since a prostatic neoplasm is actively producing PSA that it would be producing the form that is found bound to protein, vs the unbound, inactive form.
They suggest a % free PSA >25% is favorable as opposed to less than that. I just want to make sure I'm not missing anything before I discuss this with him again.
I greatly appreciate any insight! Thanks in advance.
Why is a high free PSA favorable in the evaluation of possible prostate cancer (what is it about high free PSA that makes this the case)?
I've been reviewing articles and reading our urology textbook (Smith & Tanagho 18e) but so far all that I can come up with is that if the %free PSA is high that means the bound PSA (active) % is low, which overall is consistent with what is found in men WITHOUT prostate cancer. I am deducing that since a prostatic neoplasm is actively producing PSA that it would be producing the form that is found bound to protein, vs the unbound, inactive form.
They suggest a % free PSA >25% is favorable as opposed to less than that. I just want to make sure I'm not missing anything before I discuss this with him again.
I greatly appreciate any insight! Thanks in advance.