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can someone explain this question for me
a certain autosomal recessive condition is seen in approximately 1 in every 50
people, but are symptom-free. if a male and female are both carriers of the gene, what is the probability that they have a diseased child?
a certain autosomal recessive condition is seen in approximately 1 in every 50
people, but are symptom-free. if a male and female are both carriers of the gene, what is the probability that they have a diseased child?