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chiddler

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What percentage of females would be expected to exhibit red-green color blindness, if one genetic locus were involved?

what does this mean, damn it! to assume that only one gene locus causes the disease and is therefore dominant? no! the answer suggests nothing about this!

:mad:

tbr...consistently ambiguous with their bio.
 

MedPR

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What percentage of females would be expected to exhibit red-green color blindness, if one genetic locus were involved?

what does this mean, damn it! to assume that only one gene locus causes the disease and is therefore dominant? no! the answer suggests nothing about this!

:mad:

tbr...consistently ambiguous with their bio.

Pretty sure I know exactly what passage you are talking about. The math is a stretch, imo. I skipped and ignored it for the most part.
 

Morsetlis

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One locus means that it's not locus heterogeneity. This means that the locus is on one chromosome, specifically the X chromosome. Therefore, the chances for double homozygosity in a female is prevalence(in males)^2. The prevalence of affected males is simply the frequency of the affected allele in the population.
 

SaCkO

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What percentage of females would be expected to exhibit red-green color blindness, if one genetic locus were involved?

what does this mean, damn it! to assume that only one gene locus causes the disease and is therefore dominant? no! the answer suggests nothing about this!

:mad:

tbr...consistently ambiguous with their bio.
Bro as MedPR told you.. I think somebody was on crack when he designed that passage.. made no sense at all.. plus the explanations where weird.. don't worry about it.. press ignore
 
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