The question from the Kaplan Q-bank:
How would a spontaneous mutation yield disease in an NF patient?
a. A mutation in neurofibromin during mitosis of the patient
b. A mutation in neurofibromin during meiosis of the patient
c. A mutation in neurofibromin during mitosis of the pt's parents
d. A mtutation in neurofibromin during meiosis of the pt's parents
Some info from the passage:
NF is caused my a mutation in the neurofibromin gene. It's autosomal dominant. About half the patients inherit the disease from an affected parent, half the pts have a new mutation with no family history.
The correct answer is D. I was able to rule out B and C immediately, and was debating between A and D. I understand the reasoning behind D as well. But I'm having difficulty ruling out A.
Wouldn't the case presented in A still manifest in disease, but it would not be passed down to the pt's children?
How would a spontaneous mutation yield disease in an NF patient?
a. A mutation in neurofibromin during mitosis of the patient
b. A mutation in neurofibromin during meiosis of the patient
c. A mutation in neurofibromin during mitosis of the pt's parents
d. A mtutation in neurofibromin during meiosis of the pt's parents
Some info from the passage:
NF is caused my a mutation in the neurofibromin gene. It's autosomal dominant. About half the patients inherit the disease from an affected parent, half the pts have a new mutation with no family history.
The correct answer is D. I was able to rule out B and C immediately, and was debating between A and D. I understand the reasoning behind D as well. But I'm having difficulty ruling out A.
Wouldn't the case presented in A still manifest in disease, but it would not be passed down to the pt's children?