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Looking for somebody a little more informed on the topic to help me out here....
After attending several financial aid presentations at interviews, Ive come away with this basic understanding of how need-based financial aid (not taking merit aid into account) works for poorer applicants:
1. Medical School Cost Expected Contribution = Need.
2. Up to a certain amount, this Need is met with Loans (depends on school, but generally between 20K-30K a year). If there is still an outstanding Need not met by these loans, grants and scholarships come into play.
If this is true (I may have misunderstood) wouldnt it also be true that comparing 1 (state school) and 2 (private school):
1. Medical School Cost at a cheaper State School (less)- Expected Contribution (same) = less need.
2. Medical School Cost at a more expensive Private School (more)- Expected Contribution (same) = more need.
If you are poor enough that even at a state school the 20K-30K/year in Loans isnt enough to cover the need, then you would be left with an outstanding need to be met by grants and scholarships at both schools, this would be lower at the state school compared to the private school. In turn, the state school would give you less in grants and scholarships than the private school, and in effect not be any cheaper for you.
If you are qualified enough to get into a private school with need blind, need based financial aid, and also on the poorer end of the spectrum, it seems that state schools will be no cheaper for you than good (and relatively wealthy) private med schools. Is this true?
Im from New York, and these suspicions seemed to be confirmed by US News numbers putting the average indebtedness of the SUNYs as comparable to that of some private medical schools.
Any input or information would be appreciated. I realize this is not the most entertaining thread to read/respond to. (Sorry!)
After attending several financial aid presentations at interviews, Ive come away with this basic understanding of how need-based financial aid (not taking merit aid into account) works for poorer applicants:
1. Medical School Cost Expected Contribution = Need.
2. Up to a certain amount, this Need is met with Loans (depends on school, but generally between 20K-30K a year). If there is still an outstanding Need not met by these loans, grants and scholarships come into play.
If this is true (I may have misunderstood) wouldnt it also be true that comparing 1 (state school) and 2 (private school):
1. Medical School Cost at a cheaper State School (less)- Expected Contribution (same) = less need.
2. Medical School Cost at a more expensive Private School (more)- Expected Contribution (same) = more need.
If you are poor enough that even at a state school the 20K-30K/year in Loans isnt enough to cover the need, then you would be left with an outstanding need to be met by grants and scholarships at both schools, this would be lower at the state school compared to the private school. In turn, the state school would give you less in grants and scholarships than the private school, and in effect not be any cheaper for you.
If you are qualified enough to get into a private school with need blind, need based financial aid, and also on the poorer end of the spectrum, it seems that state schools will be no cheaper for you than good (and relatively wealthy) private med schools. Is this true?
Im from New York, and these suspicions seemed to be confirmed by US News numbers putting the average indebtedness of the SUNYs as comparable to that of some private medical schools.
Any input or information would be appreciated. I realize this is not the most entertaining thread to read/respond to. (Sorry!)