Wow yep that's the correct answer. I understand how you got the answer but can you explain the rationale behind the formula? ((mass)/(mass-apparent mass)=density of object/density of fluid )
Because I'm looking at my TBR book and the only formula they give for bouyancy is p V g = m g
Also, like I asked before is the bouyancy force always equal to = mg of an object even when the object is sinking as well as floating?
Alright first, I derived this formula from the very similar formula which is ((weight)/(weight-apparent weight)=density of object/density of fluid )
Say weight is the symbol W and the apparent weight is the simple W'.
W=mg=density of object* Volume of object *g (m = density*Volume)
W-W' (real weight-apparent weight)= FB (force of Buoyancy).....force of buoyancy is the force that causes the weight to be less that is why W-W'=FB.
So you have two equations so far.
W=mg=density of object* Volume of object * g
W-W'=FB, W-W'=density of fluid*Volume of fluid displaced*g. (Notice that FB is the density of FLUID and Volume of FLUID displaced not the density of object like in W=mg.
If you devide these two formulas you get, W/(W-W')=(density of object* V of object* g)/(Density of fluid*volume of fluid displaced* g).
By cancellations, you can cancel the g and the volume because volume of object is the same as the volume of fluid displaced by that object. You will be left with density on the right side and W/W-W' in the left side.
Sorry if I confused you but you asked me where I derived this equation from.
Notice that W=mg, so technically if we cancel the g, we can be left off with mass, and thus the formula of mass/mass-apparent mass is same as weight/weight-apparent weight and you can use either of them depending on the question. If the question gave you the weight in N then use the weight equation; if the quation give you the mass like this one, then use the mass formula...simple as that.
And to your last question, the buoyancy force is equal to mg only when the object is sinking. The buoyancy force when the object is completely floating is 0. Think about it this way, the bouyancy force is the weight of the volume of fluid displaced by that object. So, if the object is completely floating, no volume of fluid will be displaced and thus the mass displaced will be 0 and hence there will be no force of buoyancy. In order to have force of buoyancy, at least a little bit of fluid has to be displaced by the object, so an object can be partially sinking and have a force of buoyancy because it displaced some volume. Notice that the mass of mg is not the mass of the object but the mass of fluid displaced. Since it doesn't seem much logical to measure the mass of fluid, we measure volume* density and substitute it for mass...but the volume here is the volume of FLUID displaced as well as the density of the fluid not the object.
P.S, this formula that I gave you isn't very common and I bet almost no prep book can include it. It can be derived from other formulas like I showed above but time sucks on the MCAT to be able to derive such equation quickly.
Sorry for my long post....if anything else, feel free to ask.