Immunology question

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Ven0m

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A Kap question said that if there are malignant, monoclonal B-cells producing IgM monomers, you can kill them by using antibodies specific for the malignant cells' idiotype + complement. But how would these kill those B-cells - wouldn't they just bind to the IgM in the circulation?


Or wait.. if it says IgM monomer, does it mean it's a surface IgM? In that case, I understand how those anti-idiotype antibodies would kill those B cells.

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If these IgM monomers are unique to the malignant B cells, a target drug -- an antibody against these surface molecules -- could be designed to trigger an immune response against those cells. Perhaps just like rituximab (anti-CD 20).
 
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I don't get it. Wouldn't the MAC complex form on the antigen bound to the IgM receptors? How does complement know to form MAC on the cancer cell expressing the IgM receptor?
 
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I don't get it. Wouldn't the MAC complex form on the antigen bound to the IgM receptors? How does complement know to form MAC on the cancer cell expressing the IgM receptor?
I'm confused about this too. I was gonna just memorize it as "the MAC goes on the cancer cell". Or maybe since complement gets activated, C3b will opsonize the cancer cell... but then again how will C3b know to bind to the cancer cell (esp. if the cancer cell expresses anti-complement like DAF), lol
 
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