Is the theoretical perfect score 300?

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Shoushu

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Is the theoretical perfect score 300?

Just out of curiosity. I hear high scores of 260, 270, 280, but don't believe many score higher than that.

On SAT and MCAT, pretty straight forward (400-1600, to2400 in new SAT), and 3-45 for MCAT.

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Pretty sure it's 280 on the 3 digit scale, and I think the two digit scale only goes up to 99, but I can't find text evidence to back that up atm.
 
Definitely higher than 280. I've heard from a PD about a 282. I think it is 300.

Yeah, all the high scores approach 300, but I bet no one ever got it perfect. Anyone knows for sure from official sources, or personal experiences?
 
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Yes 300 is the "top" score. Its also "theoretical" as you would need to better than 100% to get it. That is fact. My understanding is that 290 is theoretical too, but in the sense that no one has ever gotten 290 or above, though it could be possible with a perfect score (or something extremely close to perfect)
 
You also have to account for different difficulties/curves between tests. A harder test form may have a higher theoretical max then an easier test form.
 
Honestly at that point what's the difference? What does one additional correct question get you as far as points go up there?
 
Yes 300 is the "top" score. Its also "theoretical" as you would need to better than 100% to get it. That is fact. My understanding is that 290 is theoretical too, but in the sense that no one has ever gotten 290 or above, though it could be possible with a perfect score (or something extremely close to perfect)

This makes no sense.

How can the top score be unattainable? By definition, the highest achievable score is the top score. It's not even the theoretical highest score if you cannot reach it.
 
This makes no sense.

How can the top score be unattainable? By definition, the highest achievable score is the top score. It's not even the theoretical highest score if you cannot reach it.

Your final score after taking the exam is curved based on the overall difficulty of the item set you received (as per the NBME's information provided on their urban legends page). If I get every question right on the exam, but its an easy exam, the score will be curved below 300.
 
This makes no sense.

How can the top score be unattainable? By definition, the highest achievable score is the top score. It's not even the theoretical highest score if you cannot reach it.

Because its set up in such a way where 300 was chosen as the highest score they would award, but because the score given is based on how many SDs from the mean you are: 300 has not been an attainable number for a long time/ever. The "300 point" would require a SD that implies you got more questions right than there were on the test. If the SD were to tighten then hitting, and perhaps even surpassing, that point that would be possible, as its all SD-derived. In that case anyone above that "point" could only earn a max of 300. But again, because of the way the test is currently calibrated, 300 is not a possible score, though it is the theoretical maximum they'd ever award.

Think of it like the 99. How come the 99 point is so low that a decent portion (15%?) of people get it. Why don't they raise whats a 99. Because 99, where it is, was selected by some esoteric method as the mathematically most appropriate place to put it. It's been getting easier and easier to get in recent years as a 232 was a 99 this year, but the math behind it (I have no clue what it is) is unchanging, the score demographics are what changes and makes it more common. The 300 is the same way except the math behind it ended up putting it outside of possibility in the current, and supposedly any previous, score demographics.

tl;dr: blame mathematicians. They ignored reality so that their math would work out more 'neatly'
 
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This makes no sense.

How can the top score be unattainable? By definition, the highest achievable score is the top score. It's not even the theoretical highest score if you cannot reach it.

It's possible that only a perfect score on the hardest possible exam form can generate a 300.
 
Because its set up in such a way where 300 was chosen as the highest score they would award, but because the score given is based on how many SDs from the mean you are: 300 has not been an attainable number for a long time/ever. The "300 point" would require a SD that implies you got more questions right than there were on the test. If the SD were to tighten then hitting, and perhaps even surpassing, that point that would be possible, as its all SD-derived. In that case anyone above that "point" could only earn a max of 300. But again, because of the way the test is currently calibrated, 300 is not a possible score, though it is the theoretical maximum they'd ever award.

Think of it like the 99. How come the 99 point is so low that a decent portion (15%?) of people get it. Why don't they raise whats a 99. Because 99, where it is, was selected by some esoteric method as the mathematically most appropriate place to put it. It's been getting easier and easier to get in recent years as a 232 was a 99 this year, but the math behind it (I have no clue what it is) is unchanging, the score demographics are what changes and makes it more common. The 300 is the same way except the math behind it ended up putting it outside of possibility in the current, and supposedly any previous, score demographics.

tl;dr: blame mathematicians. They ignored reality so that their math would work out more 'neatly'

I think this is wrong...

It's NOT really based on standard deviation, and it's a non-Gaussian distribution anyway. Rather, it's based on a raw score that is scaled by the mean question difficulty of a given test. Because of this, the test remains fair across administrations. If the mean +/- SD became 220 +/-5 because a ton of "average" scores occur, it doesn't affect the type of raw score that yields, say, a 250 or 260. The NBME makes a big point of saying that scores are comparable across years. Their website explains it better, so look it up if you want more info.
 
I think this is wrong...

It's NOT really based on standard deviation, and it's a non-Gaussian distribution anyway. Rather, it's based on a raw score that is scaled by the mean question difficulty of a given test. Because of this, the test remains fair across administrations. If the mean +/- SD became 220 +/-5 because a ton of "average" scores occur, it doesn't affect the type of raw score that yields, say, a 250 or 260. The NBME makes a big point of saying that scores are comparable across years. Their website explains it better, so look it up if you want more info.

I've been through the website a ton. Its more complicated than I made it out to be, but it is based on SD's at its core, not actually question difficulty. Sorta. Its absurdly complicated and I'm not math-oriented so there is no way I remember all the subtleties of the equation. I had the NBME give a lecture on how the scoring works about 14 months ago at a national conference. So yea, i'm going off memory... but I think my explination comes in 95% or more correct. I did simplify it and maybe missed a minor detail, but the major points remain true. Based on SDs (with major complex adjustments), 300 is the max score, 300 cannot actually be obtained unless the scoring demographics change dramatically.
 
I've been through the website a ton. Its more complicated than I made it out to be, but it is based on SD's at its core, not actually question difficulty. Sorta. Its absurdly complicated and I'm not math-oriented so there is no way I remember all the subtleties of the equation. I had the NBME give a lecture on how the scoring works about 14 months ago at a national conference. So yea, i'm going off memory... but I think my explination comes in 95% or more correct. I did simplify it and maybe missed a minor detail, but the major points remain true. Based on SDs (with major complex adjustments), 300 is the max score, 300 cannot actually be obtained unless the scoring demographics change dramatically.

Per the NBME:

The USMLE uses statistical techniques called equating to ensure that the 3-digit score is comparable regardless of what test form or what time of year a candidate tests. There are, however, natural ebbs and flows to the preparation, readiness, and demographic composition that may be associated with the success of candidates who take or retake Step 1 at particular times of the year, which can lead to modest variations in pass rates. For example, specific, highly selective US medical schools whose students typically have very high pass rates tend to test within specific time bands associated with their curriculum, resulting in somewhat higher pass rates during this period. In contrast, students who were unsuccessful on their first attempt tend to retake at other times of the year, resulting in somewhat higher fail rates at that time of year. The statistical techniques used ensure that the same standard is applied to all students regardless of what time of year they test or what test form they are administered.
 
yes. haha. we're agreeing, i do believe. Just noting that the actual grade you get in the end, compared to other people taking the same test as you, is done by SDs. The whole test is pre-aligned and all that math nonsense that i never understood, but once they create what the "220" will be, they have a set equation for how many more right answers is a 230 or a 210, and (as per the NBME dude) its SD based. That initial correction is what makes it equivalent to every other test ever given, I was just pointing out how the individual administration grading is the example i was given of why a 300 cant ever be given.
 
yes. haha. we're agreeing, i do believe. Just noting that the actual grade you get in the end, compared to other people taking the same test as you, is done by SDs. The whole test is pre-aligned and all that math nonsense that i never understood, but once they create what the "220" will be, they have a set equation for how many more right answers is a 230 or a 210, and (as per the NBME dude) its SD based. That initial correction is what makes it equivalent to every other test ever given, I was just pointing out how the individual administration grading is the example i was given of why a 300 cant ever be given.

*Sigh.* No, they don't. Please read the NBME's explanation more carefully.
 
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