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I don't really understand this question:
In an infant, spinal anesthesia to a sensory to a sensory level of T8 is achieved with tetracaine administered at the L2-L3. Compared with spinal anesthesia to the same sensory level in an adult, this anesthetic is associated with a:
a) greater decrease in BP
b) higher risk for neurotoxicity
c) higher risk for systemic toxicity
d) lower risk for spinal cord injury
e) shorter duration of action
answer is E.
1996B, #87
Why would a tetracaine spinal in an infant be shorter duration of action than an adult, when pseudocholinesterase activity in an infant is roughly half that of an adult? Am I missing the obvious? Any comments welcome. Thanks.
In an infant, spinal anesthesia to a sensory to a sensory level of T8 is achieved with tetracaine administered at the L2-L3. Compared with spinal anesthesia to the same sensory level in an adult, this anesthetic is associated with a:
a) greater decrease in BP
b) higher risk for neurotoxicity
c) higher risk for systemic toxicity
d) lower risk for spinal cord injury
e) shorter duration of action
answer is E.
1996B, #87
Why would a tetracaine spinal in an infant be shorter duration of action than an adult, when pseudocholinesterase activity in an infant is roughly half that of an adult? Am I missing the obvious? Any comments welcome. Thanks.
