I have OK from my wife to post this question on her account so I hope that isn't against rules of the website. I apologize in advance for my long post.
My wife posted previously about a job offer she subsequently accepted and being a businessman outside the medical field, I wanted to ask you folks in the know the rational for what they offered her.
She is an IMG with about 15 years PEDs practice in her home country and finished her US PEDs residency in 2016. Worked 15 months at her first US practice when this offer was made to her by a large hospital system in the southeast in the city where we live.
They offered her $220K for 4.5 day work week all out patient at a new community clinic to serve the poor/uninsured and full benefit package. She told them all along that she wanted to work 4 day work week and no weekends. They said they would not prorate her salary and give her the full base pay offer plus full benefits (35 days PTO after 4 years + 7 holidays, 6% match to 401K, health ins, 1 yr. salary of life ins and disability ins - the last two fully paid for).
This offer seems much higher than what seems to be the market rate for PEDs jobs in the area.
Apparently this system has numerous FM community clinics to serve the poor and the rational is to help prevent this population from going to the ER. The clinic my wife will be at initially will be the first to offer PEDs and they plan to open more PEDs community clincs
My question - I understand these clinics are $ losers for the system what's the long term job security as opposed to one of their normal outpatient PEDs clinics ? They said she could transfer to a system clinic if she found she didn't like to community clinic work.
Why would they offer above market rate pay for a position like this? My wife is a Spanish speaker and they plan to put her in a Spanish population clinic next year when it opens. Are Spanish speakers a premium ?
Thank you for your feedback.
My wife posted previously about a job offer she subsequently accepted and being a businessman outside the medical field, I wanted to ask you folks in the know the rational for what they offered her.
She is an IMG with about 15 years PEDs practice in her home country and finished her US PEDs residency in 2016. Worked 15 months at her first US practice when this offer was made to her by a large hospital system in the southeast in the city where we live.
They offered her $220K for 4.5 day work week all out patient at a new community clinic to serve the poor/uninsured and full benefit package. She told them all along that she wanted to work 4 day work week and no weekends. They said they would not prorate her salary and give her the full base pay offer plus full benefits (35 days PTO after 4 years + 7 holidays, 6% match to 401K, health ins, 1 yr. salary of life ins and disability ins - the last two fully paid for).
This offer seems much higher than what seems to be the market rate for PEDs jobs in the area.
Apparently this system has numerous FM community clinics to serve the poor and the rational is to help prevent this population from going to the ER. The clinic my wife will be at initially will be the first to offer PEDs and they plan to open more PEDs community clincs
My question - I understand these clinics are $ losers for the system what's the long term job security as opposed to one of their normal outpatient PEDs clinics ? They said she could transfer to a system clinic if she found she didn't like to community clinic work.
Why would they offer above market rate pay for a position like this? My wife is a Spanish speaker and they plan to put her in a Spanish population clinic next year when it opens. Are Spanish speakers a premium ?
Thank you for your feedback.