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663697
Individuals heterozygous for the PKU mutation have very slightly increased levels of phenylalanine. How would you expect the phenylalanine hydroxylase reaction rate of an individual heterozygous for the PKU mutation to be different in than an individual with no mutated genes?
"The reaction rate would decrease due to a decrease in the reaction's Vmax"
Explanation: Having a heterozygous PKU mutation would mean that a portion of the expressed phenylalanine hydroxylase will be mutated. This would lower the effective [E]. A reaction’s Vmax is dependent on enzyme concentration, while an enzyme’s Km is not.
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Just wondering why the Km wouldn't increase for this type of mutation. The passage says the recessive disorder arises from an "inactivating mutation in the gene coding for the phenylalanine hydroxylase enzyme". Given this I don't understand why we can't assume that a heterozygote would be inactivated to a lesser degree, thus reducing its affinity for substrate.
"The reaction rate would decrease due to a decrease in the reaction's Vmax"
Explanation: Having a heterozygous PKU mutation would mean that a portion of the expressed phenylalanine hydroxylase will be mutated. This would lower the effective [E]. A reaction’s Vmax is dependent on enzyme concentration, while an enzyme’s Km is not.
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Just wondering why the Km wouldn't increase for this type of mutation. The passage says the recessive disorder arises from an "inactivating mutation in the gene coding for the phenylalanine hydroxylase enzyme". Given this I don't understand why we can't assume that a heterozygote would be inactivated to a lesser degree, thus reducing its affinity for substrate.