Mrs. Parson's gross salary is $250 per week. If her employer deducts 15% from the first $10,000 earned in a year, and 20% from earnings between $10,000 and $15,000 in a year, how much money does Mrs. Parson take home in one year (52 Weeks)?
A) $2,100
B) $10,900
C) $11,050
D) $11,540
E) $12,650
The answer is B.
Explanation:
Mrs. Parson's total yearly salary before taxes is 52 x $250 = $13,000. Of the first $10,000, she loses $1,500 so she earns $8,500 from the first $10,000. (Here is where I got severely confused...) Of the next $3000 she takes home $3,000-(20% x $3,000) = $2,400. So here total take is $10,900.
My question, why did they use $3,000 for the 20% when it clearly states "20% from earnings between $10,000 and $15,000 in a year". I mean I can see what they meant by the explanation but clearly the question implies actual earning between 10K to 15K not the difference! Can someone please tell if this type does actually pop up on the exam or if it was just me. I know I know Kaplan sucks but I wanted to use the resources I have to practice.
A) $2,100
B) $10,900
C) $11,050
D) $11,540
E) $12,650
The answer is B.
Explanation:
Mrs. Parson's total yearly salary before taxes is 52 x $250 = $13,000. Of the first $10,000, she loses $1,500 so she earns $8,500 from the first $10,000. (Here is where I got severely confused...) Of the next $3000 she takes home $3,000-(20% x $3,000) = $2,400. So here total take is $10,900.
My question, why did they use $3,000 for the 20% when it clearly states "20% from earnings between $10,000 and $15,000 in a year". I mean I can see what they meant by the explanation but clearly the question implies actual earning between 10K to 15K not the difference! Can someone please tell if this type does actually pop up on the exam or if it was just me. I know I know Kaplan sucks but I wanted to use the resources I have to practice.
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