I'm in a rare position. I got a below average COMLEX 47x and above average step 1 23x. I know everyone says that step 1 overrides COMLEX at most programs, but would this be a disadvantage at programs that are historically DO or know how to interpret COMLEX scores?
Could psych programs interpret this as me being at risk for not doing well on future COMLEX exams?
Could psych programs interpret this as me being at risk for not doing well on future COMLEX exams?