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- Jan 11, 2008
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Maybe a little off topic, but would like to hear from any of you micro buffs or others that have a good grasp on this.
I am constantly hearing and reading about drug resistance related to failure to comply with therapies, overuse of antibiotics, etc. Ive yet, however, to find anyone that can explain the exact mechanism of how this occurs. Explanations just dont seem to add up.
The first idea is that antibiotic therapies where the patient is noncompliant and/or fails to complete therapy selects for resistant strains. How does it select exactly? Some kind of selective pressure? If so, has this been demonstrated in studies?
The second idea is that in noncompliant and/or failure to complete patients, random mutation pops out a critter that eats antibiotics for breakfast. This makes the least sense to me. Lets say it is 1965 and George has a nasty boil. Culture shows S. aureaus. He gets his penicillin, takes it for a few days and notices the boil looks better and quits the meds. Lets say, hypothetically, the penicillin knocked out 50% of all staph cells. What exactly now happens to the remaining 50% that has given us the modern day gift of MRSA? Seems to me a random mutation could occur at any point during therapy or with no therapy at all and the introduction of penicillin is irrelevant. How, exactly, does therapy and/or failure to comply with it increase the odds of a resistant mutation? Cannot a resistant mutant emerge completely randomly in the absence of treatment?
I am constantly hearing and reading about drug resistance related to failure to comply with therapies, overuse of antibiotics, etc. Ive yet, however, to find anyone that can explain the exact mechanism of how this occurs. Explanations just dont seem to add up.
The first idea is that antibiotic therapies where the patient is noncompliant and/or fails to complete therapy selects for resistant strains. How does it select exactly? Some kind of selective pressure? If so, has this been demonstrated in studies?
The second idea is that in noncompliant and/or failure to complete patients, random mutation pops out a critter that eats antibiotics for breakfast. This makes the least sense to me. Lets say it is 1965 and George has a nasty boil. Culture shows S. aureaus. He gets his penicillin, takes it for a few days and notices the boil looks better and quits the meds. Lets say, hypothetically, the penicillin knocked out 50% of all staph cells. What exactly now happens to the remaining 50% that has given us the modern day gift of MRSA? Seems to me a random mutation could occur at any point during therapy or with no therapy at all and the introduction of penicillin is irrelevant. How, exactly, does therapy and/or failure to comply with it increase the odds of a resistant mutation? Cannot a resistant mutant emerge completely randomly in the absence of treatment?