So this MD got really mad when my pharmacy misinterpreted his authorization of zero refill as 6 for norvasc. So he's complaining that we are refilling without his permission, which is true. Just wondering if there may be any trouble if he complains to the board.
He marked ok to refill with additional _____ refills (and the 0 may be interpreted as 6 from his writing).
Thoughts? Clearly an innocent mistake on our part.
Really there is nothing to debate. The only time they are inclined to make a stink is when they feel disconnected i.e. they get a different pharmacist every time they call, hold time greater than one minute, criticism/discussion where unwarranted. You nailed it with "the 0 may be interpreted as 6
from his writing".
Consider your response in a similar scenario: taking a phone order. On the read back the Dr. corrects you and says zero refills not six. You wouldn't say "it
sounded like you said 6" you would say "Correction. Zero refills" and wait for his/her confirm. This is the same thing. Weather he/she said six he/she wanted zero.
Now back to the fax. The fact that the med was already dispensed changes nothing. Address what you see and phrase it accordingly. One or two words makes all the difference.
Sample script: "The order was a one time fill? Ok, yes, I see. We misinterpreted the fax. I apologize. I am going to inactive the rx." Meanwhile I scan the profile for additional rxs from the same Dr and offer to apprise him of the refill status of other orders he prescribed.
If he keep pressing there is a larger issue at hand. If you tour in the store won't last more than six months promise nothing and let it roll off your back. If you are going to stick around you might as well start building a relationship i.e. random check other refill auths and correct them. Then post the fax and request acknowledgement sigs on your FYI brief.
The degree does not make the professional. They don't cover this stuff in school. Your call, your practice.
