Step I Mobitz Type II Etiology question

Started by jayel
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jayel

Full Member
15+ Year Member
My Kaplan instructor told us today that both Mobitz type I and II are due to AV node abnormalities. I just did a usmle-rx question that said Mobitz type I is due to an AV node abnormality which was expected, but it also said Mobitz type II is due to a bundle of His or Purkinje fiber abnormality.

Who is right and what does the usmle say it is? Thanks
 
My Kaplan instructor told us today that both Mobitz type I and II are due to AV node abnormalities. I just did a usmle-rx question that said Mobitz type I is due to an AV node abnormality which was expected, but it also said Mobitz type II is due to a bundle of His or Purkinje fiber abnormality.

Who is right and what does the usmle say it is? Thanks

usmlerx is correct. mobitz II would be bundle of His--less likely purkinje fibers