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My Kaplan instructor told us today that both Mobitz type I and II are due to AV node abnormalities. I just did a usmle-rx question that said Mobitz type I is due to an AV node abnormality which was expected, but it also said Mobitz type II is due to a bundle of His or Purkinje fiber abnormality.
Who is right and what does the usmle say it is? Thanks
Who is right and what does the usmle say it is? Thanks