Hello all,
This is about The Berkeley Review Physics Chapter 2 Passage I Question 7. The question has a set-up with mass 1 sitting on a long table with a pulley at the end and mass 2 hanging off the edge of the table, the masses connected by a rope that goes over the pulley.
Question 7 asks "Which of the following statements is true about the normal force acting on M1 (mass 1)?"
The fourth statement is "The normal force is in the direction opposite of weight by Newton's Second Law."
When I read this statement, I thought it was false because it is Newton's THIRD Law that says that says if an object exerts a force on a second object, that object exerts and equal and opposite force on the first object...
But having thought about it, I guess Newton's Second Law F=ma is related too since the mass on the table is not accelerating vertically, so the normal force must equal the weight so as to keep the vertical acceleration zero.
Is that reasoning why the statement is correct??
So, would it be correct to say that the normal force is in the direction opposite of weight by both Newton's Second and Third Laws?
Thanks!
This is about The Berkeley Review Physics Chapter 2 Passage I Question 7. The question has a set-up with mass 1 sitting on a long table with a pulley at the end and mass 2 hanging off the edge of the table, the masses connected by a rope that goes over the pulley.
Question 7 asks "Which of the following statements is true about the normal force acting on M1 (mass 1)?"
The fourth statement is "The normal force is in the direction opposite of weight by Newton's Second Law."
When I read this statement, I thought it was false because it is Newton's THIRD Law that says that says if an object exerts a force on a second object, that object exerts and equal and opposite force on the first object...
But having thought about it, I guess Newton's Second Law F=ma is related too since the mass on the table is not accelerating vertically, so the normal force must equal the weight so as to keep the vertical acceleration zero.
Is that reasoning why the statement is correct??
So, would it be correct to say that the normal force is in the direction opposite of weight by both Newton's Second and Third Laws?
Thanks!