10+ Year Member
- May 16, 2007
I officially retire. Your lack of understanding of law, logic and argument is as mind bending as week of LSD. Scope of practice is a legal issue. Plain and simple. It is either legal or its not legal. It is clearly legal. I said so, a dentist also said so and the fact that dentists all over the country are treating this disease state with laser treatments make it clearly within their scope of practice. If you chose not to fill it, that is your professional prerogative. I would think you a fool. What the State Board would do, I could care less. You don't even know how to read the original post.I literally did not. Please re-read the post where I originally called out your poor logic.
Sorry, but you're being silly and presenting it as a position of authority.
You're demanding the text of the law that delineates whether or not a specific medication can be prescribed by a specialty, when such a thing doesn't exist for any medication or profession outside of Optometry.
You're whining that I'm not participating correctly in a debate that only you brought up, and that only you are interested in.
Furthermore, the original post I made, and the intent of the thread was whether or not it's in the scope of practice.
There are no black and white statements.
You dragged me into a "debate" trying to force me to provide an answer to a binary argument when that's never what my post set out to do.
Please re-read the posts I've made in the thread.
I attempted to answer the question you created, and now here we are.
You can get all worked up and demand that I post sections of the law, but that's because you're being intellectually lazy.
You know for a fact that they don't exist, and that determining scope of practice is, of course, never a black and white issue.
It's also perfectly legal for a dentist to sedate someone for in office procedures, but one only has to look at the disciplinary notices for the Dental boards to realize what a stupid idea it is.
Sure it's legal. Would I ever allow a dentist to sedate a family member? Absolutely not.
It may very well be legal for a dentist to write "Valtrex" on a prescription pad.
If they wrote it as a sidenote in a routine 6 month cleaning, you bet your booty I'm calling them and telling them it's not appropriate.
I'll put this in bold so you understand it.
Your logic is poor regarding "if it's legal, it's OK to fill." Even though something may be legal, or even a legal gray area, you have a duty to scrutinize unusual prescriptions as a pharmacist.
You can perform logical gymnastics to say that a viral infection unrelated to the teeth, jaws, or interior of the mouth is a dental problem, but the fact remains that there are complications, risks, and potential problems that a dentist will not understand or check for.
Throwing your hands up and saying "lol it's legal whatever" is no excuse.
Had an Rx for acyclovir for herpes (cold sores) from a dentist tonight. Do you think this is within his scope? Personally, I think it's boarderline
The answer to the OP isThe rest of the discussion is drivel.
Old person with CKD - Straw Man
Ocular Herpes - Straw Man
He is legally allowed to prescribe it. You are legally allowed to refuse to fill it.
If think he is not within the scope of his practice prove if not, shut up.