Here is the calculation: scenario where non partner receives 50% x 4 years. Assuming steady 500k partner pay, 250k non partner pay. 500k-250k=250k. 4 year track X 250k = 1 million. Buy in is 1 million in form of income reduction over 4 years. Why do you think it’s off?
- “It shouldn’t be more than 3 times the difference between partner and non partner”
What would you recommend the max difference between partner and non partner be? I guess percentage based would be more accurate?
I’ll apply the above recommendation to the following two scenarios:
1. Partner pay 600 , non partner 300. Difference is 300. Multiply the difference by 3 and you have 900 max buy in. Makes track 3 year maximum.
2. Partner pay 600. non partner pay 500. Difference is 100. Multiply the difference by 3 and you have 300 max buy in. Makes track 3 year maximum.
Both scenarios have maxed out the reccomended 3X the difference between partner and non partner. Same partnership pay. Same track duration. Obviously scenario two is better, which means that you also need to take into consideration the percent of partner pay that the non partner gets right?
I'm a partner in a PP group in the NE.
There are lots of different ways to define "buy in"
Is it sweat equity (on a partnership track at reduced income for x years) , is it actually money paid to the practice when becoming partner (very weird IMO)? is it both?
One thing I will comment on is the math above, its too simple..
You have to look at the "buy in" from a real world perspective.
Buy in does NOT = Partner income - Partner track income X years to partner. That type of thinking assumes that you would otherwise be making Partner income. Meaning that you actually had another offer for the same as partner level income but turned it down, which most likely the candidate did not have such an offer.
You have to consider Buy in = Partner income - Highest other job offer X years to partner.
For example, when I was on the partnership track, I earned 250k. But I had another job offer for 350k. No where did I have an offer for immediately making 500k.
So I lost (350-250) 100k x 3 years to partner = 300k buy in.
Its NOT 500k (partner income) - 250k = 250k x 3 years to partner = 750k. Because you never had the 500k income to "lose" in the first place..
Personally, I think paying your way (unlike working your way) into a practice is very strange. I'm not going to write a check, I'm going to take income reduction for x years. Especially if I have already had income reduction for x years.
And lastly, to the people who are saying "our guys start out at 150-200k more than AMCs on the partnership track" I'm wondering how is that possible. If the AMC is paying 400k, your starting them at 550?? Typically the decision is what I outlined above, a partnership track job at about 100k reduction from the other highest local alternative (which usually is an AMC paying 350-400k)