So Pathoma states that since an ulcer most commonly occurs on the lesser curvature of the antrum, a complication is bleeding from the left gastric artery. Why is it the left gastric artery and not the right gastric artery (isn't the right the one that supplies the antral part)?
Also, complication of a posterior duodenal ulcer being rupture of the gastroduodenal artery. I don't get how you can pinpoint it to the gastroduodenal artery bleeding, when you also have the right gastroepiploic artery and supraduodenal artery or even superior pancreaticoduodenal arteries in the area.
Any idea how Sattar figures these complications for vessel rupture and how step 1 might test these?
Also, complication of a posterior duodenal ulcer being rupture of the gastroduodenal artery. I don't get how you can pinpoint it to the gastroduodenal artery bleeding, when you also have the right gastroepiploic artery and supraduodenal artery or even superior pancreaticoduodenal arteries in the area.
Any idea how Sattar figures these complications for vessel rupture and how step 1 might test these?