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There's is a question in USMLE Rx that essentially presents as follows.
A 2 week old girl born to uncomplicated vaginal delivery is noted to be irritable, diaphoretic, and tachypneic. On exam she is afebrile but exhibits a blueish discoloration to her lower extremities, while her trunk and arms appear pinkish. What is is the main cardiac anomaly causing these symptoms?
A. Coarctation of the aorta (the correct answer)
B. PDA (what I put, which is incorrect)
C. Teratology of Fallot
D. Transposition of the Great Vessels
E. Truncus Arteriosus
So, given the fact that the patient is a girl (Turner syndrome) and that her upper extremities appear "pinkish," (via blood congestion) I can understand how one might be correctly surmise that the defect is aortic coarctation (preductal). But I still don't understand why PDA is wrong. Is the PDA not necessary to create the differential cyanosis in this case? Since this girl is only 2 weeks old, has her right to left shunt completely revered?
I find this questions especially odd because the explanation for A in RX indicated the SHE HAS a PDA and that the flow from the right to left heart via the PDA creates cyanosis. Yet, the answer is coarctation of the aorta. So is it simply the reduced blood flow to the lower extremities causing the differential cyanosis, or does the coarctation somehow exacerbate the PDA?
Perhaps this is me getting this answer wrong by simply assuming differential cyanosis=PDA; differential BP in upper vs. lower extremities = aortic coarctation
A 2 week old girl born to uncomplicated vaginal delivery is noted to be irritable, diaphoretic, and tachypneic. On exam she is afebrile but exhibits a blueish discoloration to her lower extremities, while her trunk and arms appear pinkish. What is is the main cardiac anomaly causing these symptoms?
A. Coarctation of the aorta (the correct answer)
B. PDA (what I put, which is incorrect)
C. Teratology of Fallot
D. Transposition of the Great Vessels
E. Truncus Arteriosus
So, given the fact that the patient is a girl (Turner syndrome) and that her upper extremities appear "pinkish," (via blood congestion) I can understand how one might be correctly surmise that the defect is aortic coarctation (preductal). But I still don't understand why PDA is wrong. Is the PDA not necessary to create the differential cyanosis in this case? Since this girl is only 2 weeks old, has her right to left shunt completely revered?
I find this questions especially odd because the explanation for A in RX indicated the SHE HAS a PDA and that the flow from the right to left heart via the PDA creates cyanosis. Yet, the answer is coarctation of the aorta. So is it simply the reduced blood flow to the lower extremities causing the differential cyanosis, or does the coarctation somehow exacerbate the PDA?
Perhaps this is me getting this answer wrong by simply assuming differential cyanosis=PDA; differential BP in upper vs. lower extremities = aortic coarctation