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Why does it take up to 3-6 weeks before reaching the full clinical effects of antidepressants (esp. TCAs)? ..... Im sure the mechanism in more complicated than just waiting for blood levels to reach a certain level since blood levels correlate with efficacy and toxicity. Can anyone explain?
Also, if both first generation (typical) and second generation (atypical) antipsychotics work on D2 receptors, why don't the atypcal drugs have the same side effects (EPS) as the 1st generation drugs?
Thanks for your help!
Also, if both first generation (typical) and second generation (atypical) antipsychotics work on D2 receptors, why don't the atypcal drugs have the same side effects (EPS) as the 1st generation drugs?
Thanks for your help!