A couple of questions: 1) Where exactly is the dopamine control for the release of prolactin (up in neuron cell bodies or down at the axon terminals)? 2) If the pituitary stalk is transected are ALL the hormones of the ANTERIOR and POSTERIOR pituitary decreased? 3) Would diabetes insipidus be expected? I ask this because I am confused by the conclusions in this article (can anyone explain that pathophysiology of this finding?): http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/6766537 As always, thanks in advance!!!