Pmrt

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Palex80

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  1. Attending Physician
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So... Here's another case:

45 year old female patient, pT2 (23mm) pN1 (1/3 mic; sn) cM0 G3 ER+ PR+ Her/2neu - IDC.
Treated by subcutaneous mastectomy and immediate reconstruction with silicon prothesis. Clear resection margins.

She's obviously going to get chemo + antihormonal treatment.

The questions are:

1. Would you irradiate?
2. If 1: yes; Would you treat the chest wall only or more?


Cheers
 
Any evidence of lvi (lymphovascular space invasion)?

Considering her age, grade and, especially, ln involvement, I'd likely offer pmrt to her.

My rationale would be the combined analysis of the danish pmrt trials in patients with 8+ ln's removed showing an OS benefit to pmrt long term. The 2005 EBCTCG meta-analysis also showed the impact of LC on long term OS.

I'd treat a 3-field to include the scv fossa
 
Any evidence of lvi (lymphovascular space invasion)?

Considering her age, grade and, especially, ln involvement, I'd likely offer pmrt to her.

My rationale would be the combined analysis of the danish pmrt trials in patients with 8+ ln's removed showing an OS benefit to pmrt long term. The 2005 EBCTCG meta-analysis also showed the impact of LC on long term OS.

I'd treat a 3-field to include the scv fossa

Same. I would treat both chest wall and SCV.
 
So... Here's another case:

45 year old female patient, pT2 (23mm) pN1 (1/3 mic; sn) cM0 G3 ER+ PR+ Her/2neu - IDC.
Treated by subcutaneous mastectomy and immediate reconstruction with silicon prothesis. Clear resection margins.

She's obviously going to get chemo + antihormonal treatment.

The questions are:

1. Would you irradiate?
2. If 1: yes; Would you treat the chest wall only or more?


Cheers

I'd treat with high tangents, no scv field.
 
I'd treat CW and SCV. Was a full ALND done or just 3 the SLN? I would treat either way; just wondering.

Including SCV won't add much long term toxicity and with a positive LN (albeit a mic) the risk of failure in the SCV is not trivial.
 
1. No L1
2. No complete axillary dissection, I presume they were extrapolating ACOSOG-trial data for that decision.
 
Looks like we have the same breast surgeons 😉

http://forums.studentdoctor.net/showthread.php?t=982617

Based on pN1(mi)(sn), I'd radiate or insist on ALND. If radiating I'd do CW + high tangents. SCV seems reasonable, but I save that for pN1, given that this patient's risk of having SCV disease is likely very small. I base my decision for treatment on multiple series showing worse outcome for pN1(mi) over pN0 such as:

http://jco.ascopubs.org/content/27/28/4679.long
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/m/pubmed/17899293/

There is limited prospective data for N1mic outcomes in this setting. There's two single institution retrospective series I know of looking at rates of additional axillary disease when one node is N1mi on sentinel node. But, the rate you get is going to depend on a lot of other risk factors included in some nomograms. Nevertheless, the one prospective series I know of that addresses this question to some extent is reported in this ASCO abstract:

http://meetinglibrary.asco.org/content/32586-65

Looks like a 5% reduction in LRF at 5 years for radiating similar patients. Is that worth further upfront treatment? I hear some physicians saying no, some saying yes, and some saying "well I'll talk about it with the patient."

The other way to approach the question is do you group N1mic with N0 or with N1 with a single node? The answer is that it's somewhere in between... Certainly some are using the mskcc monogram to see the risk of additional disease and making an arbitrary cutoff as to who needs treatment.

I personally feel like leaving potentially non-dissected, non-irradiated disease in the axilla of a pre- or peri- menopausal woman post-mastectomy to be too risky. I'm basically lumping N1mic in with Danish/BC post-mastectomy N1 when I think about the benefits of radiation. But that's a leap of faith, as I understand the histology used in those trials wouldn't have even caught most of today's N1mic disease.


As for chemo, she seems like a good Oncotype candidate. Odds are she's going to be high recurrence score based on grade 3. Regardless of whether you view N1mic as a N0 or N1 patient, there's data for oncotype even in node positive patients (http://www.thelancet.com/journals/lanonc/article/PIIS1470-2045(09)70314-6/fulltext).
 
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Really interesting how different the opinions are. And it seems like everyone is lightly clinging on some mediocre evidence for their choice, while understanding why others disagree.

I'd say I'd run it through the monograms, but I'm guessing they would say low risk, and in my head she is higher risk so I'd treat. Initially I was thinking high tangents, no SCV, but I'm not sure that toxicity is that bad to treat I-III and SCV. If I'm going to treat, why leave areas at risk that won't likely suffer great toxicity?

I don't know. This is the type of case that I don't know how anyone can give you a definitive answer. Curious if you get any consensus with the breast experts.
 
A III/SCV field is minimal morbidity and a potential big gain in light of MA-20 (I extrapolate since 85% were N1-3 and though this is N1mic, she is young and high grade).

Most of the nodal recurrences in the breast-only-arm of the MA.20 were in the axilla, not in the paraclavicular region. That's making things even more complicated.

Although I have to say, numbers are small.
 
What was the rate of recurrence again in the axilla in MA.20 in breast only arm? From what I remember, most of these women had full dissections, not even just SLN bx. That would be odd.
 
In the breast alone arm there were 21 regional only recurrences (out of 916 patients treated breast alone) and 67% of those 21 (so I guess 14?) were in the axilla.

This is in comparison to 4 regional only recurrences out of 916 patients treated with breast + regional nodal RT.

I happened to have the power point up..
 
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