To calculate population ARP, we use the incidence of disease in the population as a whole including all the exposed and non-exposed groups. But, Incidence in itself should include population at risk in the denominator which is the most important point in its calculation.
Now, when calculating population ARP, why do we include non-exposed incidence if we don't consider them to be 'at risk' for the disease since they don't have a particular risk factor? Or is it because we still don't know whether they are at risk or not and we want to associate any risk if we find later in the study? Did I just answer myself?
Now, when calculating population ARP, why do we include non-exposed incidence if we don't consider them to be 'at risk' for the disease since they don't have a particular risk factor? Or is it because we still don't know whether they are at risk or not and we want to associate any risk if we find later in the study? Did I just answer myself?
