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Guys, please lemme know if the following statement makes any sense to you
It has been found that
in pain associated with a postural disposition of superior iliac crest (erect) and posterior PSIS(posterior superior iliac spine) the source of pathology may be
a)lumbar if the side of erect iliac crest superiority is contralateral to the side of posterior PSIS;
b)pelvic muscular pathology when the side of erect iliac crest superiority is ipsilateral to the side of posterior PSIS.
It has been found that
in pain associated with a postural disposition of superior iliac crest (erect) and posterior PSIS(posterior superior iliac spine) the source of pathology may be
a)lumbar if the side of erect iliac crest superiority is contralateral to the side of posterior PSIS;
b)pelvic muscular pathology when the side of erect iliac crest superiority is ipsilateral to the side of posterior PSIS.