preperation for acfd 2007

[Acfd2007]

plz give ur email so that we can form a group for those who want to give exam in may2007

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[Acfd2007]

In the primary dentition the tooth surface most likely to decay:A. distal of first molar;B.distal of second molar;C.mesial of second molar

plz correct me

 

[dentistryguru]

Hi please add me too
my email is [email protected]

 

[colours99]

..........

 

[aashka]

hey i am retakign my nbde and i feel this thread is gonna help a lot of people. i can be contacted in this [email protected]

 

[mrswinidm]

Hi all! pls let me take part in ur group. here's my email [email protected].
Here are my answers. pls don't rely on them because i answered them with general knowledge. i would be very grateful if somebody will correct and discuss my silly mistakes. thanks

1. In a Class I occlusion the buccal cusps of maxillary teeth occlude
A. with the lingual surface of the mandibular teeth.
B. in the central fossa of the mandibular teeth.
C. with the top of the buccal cusp of the mandibular teeth.
D. with the buccal surface of the mandibular teeth.

2. The most important principle dictating location and size of access to the root canal system is
A. preservation of tooth structure.
B. removal of all caries.
C. straight line access to the canal.
D. removal of all pulp horns.

3. An ideal Class II cavity preparation for an amalgam restoration in a primary molar should have a
A. proximal box that diverges occlusally
. B. reverse curve. C. proximal retention grooves.
D. rounded axiopulpal line angle.
E. definite bevel on the gingival cavosurface angle.
4. After the crown completion stage, trauma to a developing tooth may be responsible for
A. enamel hypoplasia.
B. gemination.
C. dilaceration.
D. fusion.

5. Radiographic examination of a permanent molar with an acute pulpitis of 24 hour duration would reveal
A. radiolucency of the bifurcation.
B. normal radiographic appearance.
C. periapical bone rarefaction. D. altered periodontal ligament space.
E. internal resorption.

6. The gingival margin of the preparation for a full crown on a posterior tooth, with a clinical crown that satisfies the requirements for retention and resistance, should be placed
A. 0.5mm subgingivally.
B. on the enamel. C. supragingivally. D. at the cemento-enamel junction. E. at the gingival margin.

7. To ensure maximum marginal strength for an amalgam restoration the cavosurface angle should A. approach 45 degrees. B. approach 90 degrees. C. be bevelled. D. be chamfered.

8. In the surgical removal of an impacted mandibular third molar, which of the following would be considered to be the most difficult? A. Mesio-angular. B. Horizontal. C. Vertical. D. Disto-angular.


9. Which articular disease most often accompanies Sjögren’s syndrome? A. Suppurative arthritis. B. Rheumatoid arthritis. C. Degenerative arthrosis. D. Psoriatic arthritis. E. Lupus arthritis.


10. Acute osteomyelitis of the mandible differs from malignant neoplasm because it A. is asymptomatic. B. is associated with high fever. C. has an excellent prognosis. D. has well defined radiographic margins.


11. The maxillary cast partial denture major connector design with the greatest potential to cause speech problems is A. a thick narrow major connector. B. an anterior and a posterior bar. C. a thin broad palatal strap. D. narrow horseshoe shaped.

12. The principal microorganism in aggressive periodontitis (juvenile periodontitis) is A. porphyromonas gingivalis. B. fusobacterium vincenti. C. actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans. D. prevotella intermedia.

13. The objective of scaling and root planing during periodontal therapy is to remove A. plaque, calculus, contaminated cementum and junctional epithelium. B. plaque and calculus exclusively. C. plaque, calculus and crevicular epithelium. D. plaque, calculus and contaminated cementum. E. all cementum associated with periodontitis.



14. A patient with congestive heart failure may have 1. epistaxis. 2. shortness of breath. 3. rhinophyma. 4. pitting edema of the ankles. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above.


15. A patient presents with hypodontia, conical teeth, fine, scanty, fair hair, and an intolerance to hot weather. The most likely diagnosis is A. achondroplasia. B. malignant hyperthermia. C. ectodermal dysplasia. D. cystic fibrosis.
16. The vibrating line of the palate is 1. always on the hard palate. 2. an area which marks the movement of the soft palate. 3. easily located on a cast. 4. a useful landmark in complete denture fabrication. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above.


17. In order to achieve a proper interproximal contact when using a spherical alloy, which of the following is/are essential? 1. A larger sized condenser. 2. A thinner matrix band. 3. A properly placed wedge. 4. Use of mechanical condensation. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above.

18. Xerostomia can result from 1. Sjögren’s syndrome. 2. radiation therapy for oral cancer. 3. antidepressant drug therapy. 4. anticholinergics (Atropine). A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above.
19. The muscles used when closing the jaws to maximum intercuspation include A. medial (internal) and lateral pterygoid, masseter, geniohyoid. B. temporalis, medial pterygoid, masseter, geniohyoid. C. medial pterygoid, temporalis, masseter. D. lateral (external) pterygoid, masseter, temporalis, geniohyoid.

20. Hypothyroidism affects dental development by A. causing microdontia. B. delaying the eruption timetable. C. causing sclerotic bone to form over the occlusal surface of erupting teeth. D. accelerating the eruption timetable.

21. The lingual nerve contributes sensory fibers to the 1. tongue. 2. lingual surface of the mandible. 3. floor of the mouth. 4. mandibular posterior teeth. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above.

22. The local anesthetic lidocaine is an A. amide. B. ester. C. aldehyde. D. acid.


23. Which antibiotic is chiefly bactericidal? A. Penicillin. B. Erythromycin. C. Tetracycline. D. Chloramphenicol. E. Clindamycin.

24. The periodontium is best able to tolerate forces directed to a tooth A. horizontally. B. laterally. C. obliquely. D. vertically.

25. Abnormalities in blood clotting may be associated with a deficiency of vitamin A. B12. B. C. C. E. D. K. 26. Molecular attraction between unlike substances is called A. adhesion. B. cohesion. C. syneresis. D. absorption.

27. Which of the following procedures must be done to ensure acceptable mercury hygiene in a dental office? A. Use of high volume evacuation when working with amalgam. B. Use of air spray when condensing, polishing or removing amalgam. C. Storage of amalgam scrap in a dry container with a lid. D. A quarterly mercury assessment for office personnel.


28. Which of the following is a possible cause for a low density radiograph (light film)? A. Cold developer. B. Over exposure. C. Improper safety light. D. Excessive developing time.

29. After setting, alginate impressions A. imbibe water. B. remain dimensionally stable for 12 hours. C. have higher tear strength than polyvinylsiloxane impressions. D. can be poured twice with little effect on accuracy of the resulting cast.

30. Cleft lip and palate usually result from A. failure of proper union of the median and lateral nasal processes. B. failure of the union of the median nasal process with the lateral nasal and maxillary processes. C. anhidrotic ectodermal dysplasia. D. failure of development of both the lateral nasal and maxillary processes.

 

[mrswinidm]

ans

A flat lesion is known as a

a fistula.
b papule.
c macule.
d pustule.
e erythule

 

[mrswinidm]

ans

The following predispose to wound infection
(a) Malnutrition
(b) Hypovolaemia
(c) Malignancy
(d) A good wound blood supply
(e) Steroid therapy

 

[mrswinidm]

ans

Serum alpha-fetoprotein is not increased in
(a) Acute hepatitis
(b) Hepatocellular carcinoma
(c) Neuroblastoma
(d) Teratomas
(e) Bladder carcinoma

 

[mrswinidm]

ans

During a trauma primary survey the following chest injuries should be identified
(a) Airway obstruction
(b) Tension pneumothorax
(c) Aortic disruption
(d) Traumatic diaphragmatic hernia
(e) Myocardial contusion

 

[mrswinidm]

ans

1. A failing or ailing implant shows an increase in subgingival:

a. S. Mutans.

b. aerobic gram negative bacteria. c. anaerobic gram negative bacteria. d. black pigmented porphyrmonas.


2. A presurgical radiographic stent with vertical radiopaque indices at the center of each tooth position identifies:

a. the mesial-distal position of the proposed implant site. b. vital anatomical structures. c. the potential emergence profile. d. radiographic distortion.



3. Lowering mechanical stress to the crestal bone-implant interface can best be accomplished by the use of:

a. wide diameter implants (> 4.7 mm). b. long implants (> 12 mm). c. a cantilever prosthesis. d. smooth cylinder implants.

 

[mrswinidm]

ans

[YOUTUBE][/YOUTUBE]Which of the following conditions does the science of Oral Pathology NOT treat? 1. Nature of the disease 2. Surgical procedures 3. Causes of the disease 4. Development of the disease

Who is responsible for informing a patient when an oral disease is found? 1. Dental technician (basic) 2. Dental technician (advanced) only 3. Dental officer only 4. Both 2 and 3 above

When do congenital anomalies occur? 1. At death 2. After birth 3. During birth 4. Before birth When do acquired anomalies occur? 1. At death 2. After birth 3. During birth 4. Before birth


About how many milliliters (ml) of saliva do the salivary glands secrete on a daily basis? 1. 150 2. 750 3. 1500 4. 1750

 

[dr.ymp]

Hi mrswinidm
These are some correction and there explanation... Please correct me, If I m wrong..
Thank you.


1. In a Class I occlusion the buccal cusps of maxillary teeth occlude
A. with the lingual surface of the mandibular teeth.
B. in the central fossa of the mandibular teeth.
C. with the top of the buccal cusp of the mandibular teeth.
D. with the buccal surface of the mandibular teeth

Actually In Class 1 occlusion the mesio-buccal cusp of maxillary teeth occlude with buccal groove of mandibular teeth.....
Buccal groove is on buccal surface ... so correct answer is C

3. An ideal Class II cavity preparation for an amalgam restoration in a primary molar should have a
A. proximal box that diverges occlusally
B. reverse curve. C. proximal retention grooves.
D. rounded axiopulpal line angle.
E. definite bevel on the gingival cavosurface angle.

As rounded axiopulpal line angle is reduce the occlusal stress...which reduce chances of restoration fracture.

6. The gingival margin of the preparation for a full crown on a posterior tooth, with a clinical crown that satisfies the requirements for retention and resistance, should be placed
A. 0.5mm subgingivally.
B. on the enamel. C. supragingivally. D. at the cemento-enamel junction. E. at the gingival margin

Gingival margin should be placed 1mm coronal to the cemento enamel junction.. so it is definately on enamel either supra or subgingivally.... as both of them have there own indication and contra-indication by only depend on retention resistence form we cant judge it
Definately gingival margin should never at the cemento enamel junction or at the gingival margin.....
As there is enough retention and resistence form... and as it is posterior teeth where esthetics have no prime important so no need to put gingival margin at 0.5mm subgingivally... but other factor such as DMF index, Age, Caries, Hight of crown may play its role in decision regarding gingival margin

We can put gingival margin, supra gingivally as that is posterior teeth and it has sufficient retention and resistance form but other factor also plays there role...

So Preference should be given out of Supra gingivally or on enamel....

12. The principal microorganism in aggressive periodontitis (juvenile periodontitis) is
A. porphyromonas gingivalis.
B. fusobacterium vincenti.
C. actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans.
D. prevotella intermedia


About how many milliliters (ml) of saliva do the salivary glands secrete on a daily basis?
1. 150
2. 750
3. 1500
4. 1750

Daily secretion of saliva normally ranges between 800 and 1500 milliliters, as shown by the average value of 1000 milliliters
Reference from Guyton and C.C.Chettargy

 

[mrswinidm]

thanks a lot for the correction and explanation.

Hi mrswinidm
These are some correction and there explanation... Please correct me, If I m wrong..
Thank you.


1. In a Class I occlusion the buccal cusps of maxillary teeth occlude
A. with the lingual surface of the mandibular teeth.
B. in the central fossa of the mandibular teeth.
C. with the top of the buccal cusp of the mandibular teeth.
D. with the buccal surface of the mandibular teeth

Actually In Class 1 occlusion the mesio-buccal cusp of maxillary teeth occlude with buccal groove of mandibular teeth.....
Buccal groove is on buccal surface ... so correct answer is C

3. An ideal Class II cavity preparation for an amalgam restoration in a primary molar should have a
A. proximal box that diverges occlusally
B. reverse curve. C. proximal retention grooves.
D. rounded axiopulpal line angle.
E. definite bevel on the gingival cavosurface angle.

As rounded axiopulpal line angle is reduce the occlusal stress...which reduce chances of restoration fracture.

6. The gingival margin of the preparation for a full crown on a posterior tooth, with a clinical crown that satisfies the requirements for retention and resistance, should be placed
A. 0.5mm subgingivally.
B. on the enamel. C. supragingivally. D. at the cemento-enamel junction. E. at the gingival margin

Gingival margin should be placed 1mm coronal to the cemento enamel junction.. so it is definately on enamel either supra or subgingivally.... as both of them have there own indication and contra-indication by only depend on retention resistence form we cant judge it
Definately gingival margin should never at the cemento enamel junction or at the gingival margin.....
As there is enough retention and resistence form... and as it is posterior teeth where esthetics have no prime important so no need to put gingival margin at 0.5mm subgingivally... but other factor such as DMF index, Age, Caries, Hight of crown may play its role in decision regarding gingival margin

We can put gingival margin, supra gingivally as that is posterior teeth and it has sufficient retention and resistance form but other factor also plays there role...

So Preference should be given out of Supra gingivally or on enamel....

12. The principal microorganism in aggressive periodontitis (juvenile periodontitis) is
A. porphyromonas gingivalis.
B. fusobacterium vincenti.
C. actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans.
D. prevotella intermedia


About how many milliliters (ml) of saliva do the salivary glands secrete on a daily basis?
1. 150
2. 750
3. 1500
4. 1750

Daily secretion of saliva normally ranges between 800 and 1500 milliliters, as shown by the average value of 1000 milliliters
Reference from Guyton and C.C.Chettargy

 

[addy81]

I am planing to give part 1 in july/aug 07. My add is [email protected] Please add me to the group.

i also planning to reappear for part 1 in june 2007 to improve over 84%.pl add me to group [email protected]

 

[micky2mouse]

i will also like to join the thread &my mail add: is [email protected]

good luck to all

 

[chinabuffet]

Please add me to the list. [email protected]

also, where are you guys getting these questions from?

 

[EE2007]

hi i am giving acfd in may 2007,

The gingival margin of the preparation for a full crown on a posterior tooth, with a clinical crown that satisfies the requirements for retention and resistance, should be placed
A. 0.5mm subgingivally.
B. on the enamel. C. supragingivally. D. at the cemento-enamel junction. E. at the gingival margin.

dr YMP has a point in his answer..on the enamel.. but ru sure .. because supragingivally is so right...

 

[EE2007]

i have collected quite a few questions which i would like help from u all ...with explanations please.. cheers

Periodontal examination reveals adequate attached gingiva between teeth 1.5 and 1.6 with
probing depths of 4mm. In addition to scaling and root planing, what is the most appropriate
treatment for this area?
A. Observation.
B. Perform a gingivectomy.
C. Place a free gingival graft.
D. Perform full thickness flap procedure with ostectomy.
E. Replace the defective restorations.


Resolution of the edematous suprabony pockets in the mandibular anterior will
A. result in a potential cosmetic problem.
B. result in teeth with an increased mobility.
C. result in increased bony support for the teeth.
D. require apicoectomy procedures.
E. require orthodontic procedures.


The component of the removable partial denture framework on tooth 4.6
A. is unnecessary.
B. requires modification of the tooth prior to making a final impression.
C. directs functional occlusal forces along the long axis of the tooth.
D. should only be used if the tooth is periodontally compromised.


The gridwork (meshwork) over the edentulous area in the fourth quadrant of the denture framework
A. will interfere with the mylohyoid muscle.
B. has adequate relief for acceptable retention of an acrylic denture base.
C. is placed too far to the buccal.
D. has too small a surface area to provide for acceptable retention of an acrylic denture base.


Assuming that tooth 3.4 has no periodontal problems, the tip of the clasp on tooth 3.4 should be placed
A. occlusal to the survey line.
B. at the survey line.
C. in a .005 inch (.125mm) undercut gingival to the survey line.
D. in a .01 to .02 inch (.25 to .50mm) undercut gingival to the survey line.
E. in a .04 inch (1.0mm) undercut gingival to the survey line.

 

[soulie]

Hi

I am also writing the upcoming ACFD EE Exam in May. Can someone please help me in regards to the best resources needed for preparation of the EE. I've tried to get information from UBC but only have had frustration dealing with them, if someone can point me in the right direction that would be greatly appreciated.

Thanks.

 

[dr.ymp]

Dear EE2007 ... you r right that supra gingival seems to very close to right so in my last statement i had pointed that both of them looking right... but as you know enamel is right in any condition... so i had pointed on enamel but.... not sure 100% about supra gingival.

I appreciate if anyone have reasonable explanation to eliminate confussion regarding this...
Thanks..
Dr.ymp

hi i am giving acfd in may 2007,

The gingival margin of the preparation for a full crown on a posterior tooth, with a clinical crown that satisfies the requirements for retention and resistance, should be placed
A. 0.5mm subgingivally.
B. on the enamel. C. supragingivally. D. at the cemento-enamel junction. E. at the gingival margin.

dr YMP has a point in his answer..on the enamel.. but ru sure .. because supragingivally is so right...

 

[bridge]

Hi
Let me try. Whenever we are working in the posterior quadrants the most important aspect of margin placement is to place it in a hygenic area, thus to place them supragingivally as aesthetics is not a concern and the main concern here is ease of assessibility to clean which is best achieved by supra gingival margins. As far as placing it on the enamel, if you reflect back the thickness of enamel near the gingival margin would be less than 0.5 mm and so whenever we prep any margins 90% of the time we are in dentin. So the correct answer is supragingivally.

Had it been a prep for veneers then your answer would have been enamel as we need atleast 50% enamel to get better bonding. And most veneers are done in the anterior segments.

hope this clears the doubts.

 

[mrswinidm]

thanks a lot for the nice explanation bridge.

 

[dr.ymp]

thank you very much for clearing doubt by your explanation...

Hi
Let me try. Whenever we are working in the posterior quadrants the most important aspect of margin placement is to place it in a hygenic area, thus to place them supragingivally as aesthetics is not a concern and the main concern here is ease of assessibility to clean which is best achieved by supra gingival margins. As far as placing it on the enamel, if you reflect back the thickness of enamel near the gingival margin would be less than 0.5 mm and so whenever we prep any margins 90% of the time we are in dentin. So the correct answer is supragingivally.

Had it been a prep for veneers then your answer would have been enamel as we need atleast 50% enamel to get better bonding. And most veneers are done in the anterior segments.

hope this clears the doubts.

 

[mrswinidm]

hi guys, i need ur help in the following question.

The amount of oxygen bound to hemoglobin:
1. is directly proportional to the partial pressure of O2
2. increases if the tempreature increases
3. decreases if the PCO2 increases
4. increases if DPG concentration increases
5. is constant between PO2 of 40 and 100 mmHg

I think both 1 and 3 are correct. but the deck says the answer is 3. pls kindly explain me why 1 is false. thanks in advance.

 

[sgaa]

count me in:
[email protected]


I scored 98% in part I NBDE in the year 1999, then, went on to do my Ph.D. in Molecular genetics and now, am seriously thinking of reviving my dental links in Canada! I want to take the EE in May 2007.

thanks,
sgaa

 

[sgaa]

must have been sleepy putting down this comment- please ignore!!!

 

[SDFFGG]

Can I join this group, i am planning to sit for EE late this year.

 

[SDFFGG]

Can I join this group, i am planning to sit for EE late this year.My email is [email protected]

 

[dralana1977]

add me in
[email protected]

How are you guys planning on studying together?
We could set a time like once a week to discuss questions in a forum..since not everybody lives in Ontario

 

[drblack]

1. In a Class I occlusion the buccal cusps of maxillary teeth occlude
A. with the lingual surface of the mandibular teeth.
B. in the central fossa of the mandibular teeth.
C. with the top of the buccal cusp of the mandibular teeth.
D. with the buccal surface of the mandibular teeth.

2. The most important principle dictating location and size of access to the root canal system is
A. preservation of tooth structure.
B. removal of all caries.
C. straight line access to the canal.
D. removal of all pulp horns.

3. An ideal Class II cavity preparation for an amalgam restoration in a primary molar should have a
A. proximal box that diverges occlusally
. B. reverse curve. C. proximal retention grooves.
D. rounded axiopulpal line angle.
E. definite bevel on the gingival cavosurface angle.
4. After the crown completion stage, trauma to a developing tooth may be responsible for
A. enamel hypoplasia.
B. gemination.
C. dilaceration.
D. fusion.

5. Radiographic examination of a permanent molar with an acute pulpitis of 24 hour duration would reveal
A. radiolucency of the bifurcation.
B. normal radiographic appearance.
C. periapical bone rarefaction. D. altered periodontal ligament space.
E. internal resorption.

6. The gingival margin of the preparation for a full crown on a posterior tooth, with a clinical crown that satisfies the requirements for retention and resistance, should be placed
A. 0.5mm subgingivally.
B. on the enamel. C. supragingivally. D. at the cemento-enamel junction. E. at the gingival margin.

7. To ensure maximum marginal strength for an amalgam restoration the cavosurface angle should A. approach 45 degrees. B. approach 90 degrees. C. be bevelled. D. be chamfered.

8. In the surgical removal of an impacted mandibular third molar, which of the following would be considered to be the most difficult? A. Mesio-angular. B. Horizontal. C. Vertical. D. Disto-angular.


9. Which articular disease most often accompanies Sjögren’s syndrome? A. Suppurative arthritis. B. Rheumatoid arthritis. C. Degenerative arthrosis. D. Psoriatic arthritis. E. Lupus arthritis.


10. Acute osteomyelitis of the mandible differs from malignant neoplasm because it A. is asymptomatic. B. is associated with high fever. C. has an excellent prognosis. D. has well defined radiographic margins.


11. The maxillary cast partial denture major connector design with the greatest potential to cause speech problems is A. a thick narrow major connector. B. an anterior and a posterior bar. C. a thin broad palatal strap. D. narrow horseshoe shaped.

12. The principal microorganism in aggressive periodontitis (juvenile periodontitis) is A. porphyromonas gingivalis. B. fusobacterium vincenti. C. actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans. D. prevotella intermedia.

13. The objective of scaling and root planing during periodontal therapy is to remove A. plaque, calculus, contaminated cementum and junctional epithelium. B. plaque and calculus exclusively. C. plaque, calculus and crevicular epithelium. D. plaque, calculus and contaminated cementum. E. all cementum associated with periodontitis.



14. A patient with congestive heart failure may have 1. epistaxis. 2. shortness of breath. 3. rhinophyma. 4. pitting edema of the ankles. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above.


15. A patient presents with hypodontia, conical teeth, fine, scanty, fair hair, and an intolerance to hot weather. The most likely diagnosis is A. achondroplasia. B. malignant hyperthermia. C. ectodermal dysplasia. D. cystic fibrosis.
16. The vibrating line of the palate is 1. always on the hard palate. 2. an area which marks the movement of the soft palate. 3. easily located on a cast. 4. a useful landmark in complete denture fabrication. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above.


17. In order to achieve a proper interproximal contact when using a spherical alloy, which of the following is/are essential? 1. A larger sized condenser. 2. A thinner matrix band. 3. A properly placed wedge. 4. Use of mechanical condensation. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above.

18. Xerostomia can result from 1. Sjögren’s syndrome. 2. radiation therapy for oral cancer. 3. antidepressant drug therapy. 4. anticholinergics (Atropine). A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above.
19. The muscles used when closing the jaws to maximum intercuspation include A. medial (internal) and lateral pterygoid, masseter, geniohyoid. B. temporalis, medial pterygoid, masseter, geniohyoid. C. medial pterygoid, temporalis, masseter. D. lateral (external) pterygoid, masseter, temporalis, geniohyoid.

20. Hypothyroidism affects dental development by A. causing microdontia. B. delaying the eruption timetable. C. causing sclerotic bone to form over the occlusal surface of erupting teeth. D. accelerating the eruption timetable.

21. The lingual nerve contributes sensory fibers to the 1. tongue. 2. lingual surface of the mandible. 3. floor of the mouth. 4. mandibular posterior teeth. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above.

22. The local anesthetic lidocaine is an A. amide. B. ester. C. aldehyde. D. acid.


23. Which antibiotic is chiefly bactericidal? A. Penicillin. B. Erythromycin. C. Tetracycline. D. Chloramphenicol. E. Clindamycin.

24. The periodontium is best able to tolerate forces directed to a tooth A. horizontally. B. laterally. C. obliquely. D. vertically.

25. Abnormalities in blood clotting may be associated with a deficiency of vitamin A. B12. B. C. C. E. D. K.
26. Molecular attraction between unlike substances is called A. adhesion. B. cohesion. C. syneresis. D. absorption.

27. Which of the following procedures must be done to ensure acceptable mercury hygiene in a dental office? A. Use of high volume evacuation when working with amalgam. B. Use of air spray when condensing, polishing or removing amalgam. C. Storage of amalgam scrap in a dry container with a lid. D. A quarterly mercury assessment for office personnel.


28. Which of the following is a possible cause for a low density radiograph (light film)? A. Cold developer. B. Over exposure. C. Improper safety light. D. Excessive developing time.

29. After setting, alginate impressions A. imbibe water. B. remain dimensionally stable for 12 hours. C. have higher tear strength than polyvinylsiloxane impressions. D. can be poured twice with little effect on accuracy of the resulting cast.

30. Cleft lip and palate usually result from A. failure of proper union of the median and lateral nasal processes. B. failure of the union of the median nasal process with the lateral nasal and maxillary processes. C. anhidrotic ectodermal dysplasia. D. failure of development of both the lateral nasal and maxillary processes.

 

[micky2mouse]

hi ,

i have collected quite a few questions which i would like help from u all ...with explanations please.. cheers

Periodontal examination reveals adequate attached gingiva between teeth 1.5 and 1.6 with
probing depths of 4mm. In addition to scaling and root planing, what is the most appropriate
treatment for this area?
A. Observation.
B. Perform a gingivectomy.
C. Place a free gingival graft.
D. Perform full thickness flap procedure with ostectomy.
E. Replace the defective restorations.

as normal sulcus depth is 2-3mm, so with scaling & root planning problem will be solved

Resolution of the edematous suprabony pockets in the mandibular anterior will
A. result in a potential cosmetic problem.
B. result in teeth with an increased mobility.
C. result in increased bony support for the teeth.
D. require apicoectomy procedures.
E. require orthodontic procedures.
as pocket involves gingival inflammation with no bone loss


The component of the removable partial denture framework on tooth 4.6
A. is unnecessary.
B. requires modification of the tooth prior to making a final impression.
C. directs functional occlusal forces along the long axis of the tooth.
D. should only be used if the tooth is periodontally compromised.
this suites best and ques is incomplete.


The gridwork (meshwork) over the edentulous area in the fourth quadrant of the denture framework
A. will interfere with the mylohyoid muscle.
B. has adequate relief for acceptable retention of an acrylic denture base.
C. is placed too far to the buccal.
D. has too small a surface area to provide for acceptable retention of an acrylic denture base.


Assuming that tooth 3.4 has no periodontal problems, the tip of the clasp on tooth 3.4 should be placed
A. occlusal to the survey line.
B. at the survey line.
C. in a .005 inch (.125mm) undercut gingival to the survey line.
D. in a .01 to .02 inch (.25 to .50mm) undercut gingival to the survey line.
E. in a .04 inch (1.0mm) undercut gingival to the survey line.


do correct me if wrong and i am not sure of last 2 questions. if got ans to that do tell me

 

[suraj]

my email id is [email protected]

 

[nice]

hi there
my mail is [email protected]
i just started reading for part 1,and appear in nov 2007.
its too early for me
bye

if u r residin in toronto area u can mail me at [email protected] if u wud like to do a combine study.

 

[SDFFGG]

1. In a Class I occlusion the buccal cusps of maxillary teeth occlude
A. with the lingual surface of the mandibular teeth.
B. in the central fossa of the mandibular teeth.
C. with the top of the buccal cusp of the mandibular teeth.
D. with the buccal surface of the mandibular teeth.

2. The most important principle dictating location and size of access to the root canal system is
A. preservation of tooth structure.
B. removal of all caries.
C. straight line access to the canal.
D. removal of all pulp horns.

3. An ideal Class II cavity preparation for an amalgam restoration in a primary molar should have a
A. proximal box that diverges occlusally
. B. reverse curve. C. proximal retention grooves.
D. rounded axiopulpal line angle.
E. definite bevel on the gingival cavosurface angle.
4. After the crown completion stage, trauma to a developing tooth may be responsible for
A. enamel hypoplasia.
B. gemination.
C. dilaceration.
D. fusion.

5. Radiographic examination of a permanent molar with an acute pulpitis of 24 hour duration would reveal
A. radiolucency of the bifurcation.
B. normal radiographic appearance.
C. periapical bone rarefaction. D. altered periodontal ligament space.
E. internal resorption.

6. The gingival margin of the preparation for a full crown on a posterior tooth, with a clinical crown that satisfies the requirements for retention and resistance, should be placed
A. 0.5mm subgingivally.
B. on the enamel. C. supragingivally. D. at the cemento-enamel junction. E. at the gingival margin.

7. To ensure maximum marginal strength for an amalgam restoration the cavosurface angle should A. approach 45 degrees. B. approach 90 degrees. C. be bevelled. D. be chamfered.

8. In the surgical removal of an impacted mandibular third molar, which of the following would be considered to be the most difficult? A. Mesio-angular. B. Horizontal. C. Vertical. D. Disto-angular.


9. Which articular disease most often accompanies Sjögren’s syndrome? A. Suppurative arthritis. B. Rheumatoid arthritis. C. Degenerative arthrosis. D. Psoriatic arthritis. E. Lupus arthritis.


10. Acute osteomyelitis of the mandible differs from malignant neoplasm because it A. is asymptomatic. B. is associated with high fever. C. has an excellent prognosis. D. has well defined radiographic margins.


11. The maxillary cast partial denture major connector design with the greatest potential to cause speech problems is A. a thick narrow major connector. B. an anterior and a posterior bar. C. a thin broad palatal strap. D. narrow horseshoe shaped.

12. The principal microorganism in aggressive periodontitis (juvenile periodontitis) is A. porphyromonas gingivalis. B. fusobacterium vincenti. C. actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans. D. prevotella intermedia.

13. The objective of scaling and root planing during periodontal therapy is to remove A. plaque, calculus, contaminated cementum and junctional epithelium. B. plaque and calculus exclusively. C. plaque, calculus and crevicular epithelium. D. plaque, calculus and contaminated cementum. E. all cementum associated with periodontitis.



14. A patient with congestive heart failure may have 1. epistaxis. 2. shortness of breath. 3. rhinophyma. 4. pitting edema of the ankles. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above.


15. A patient presents with hypodontia, conical teeth, fine, scanty, fair hair, and an intolerance to hot weather. The most likely diagnosis is A. achondroplasia. B. malignant hyperthermia. C. ectodermal dysplasia. D. cystic fibrosis.
16. The vibrating line of the palate is 1. always on the hard palate. 2. an area which marks the movement of the soft palate. 3. easily located on a cast. 4. a useful landmark in complete denture fabrication. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above.


17. In order to achieve a proper interproximal contact when using a spherical alloy, which of the following is/are essential? 1. A larger sized condenser. 2. A thinner matrix band. 3. A properly placed wedge. 4. Use of mechanical condensation. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above.

18. Xerostomia can result from 1. Sjögren’s syndrome. 2. radiation therapy for oral cancer. 3. antidepressant drug therapy. 4. anticholinergics (Atropine). A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above.
19. The muscles used when closing the jaws to maximum intercuspation include A. medial (internal) and lateral pterygoid, masseter, geniohyoid. B. temporalis, medial pterygoid, masseter, geniohyoid. C. medial pterygoid, temporalis, masseter. D. lateral (external) pterygoid, masseter, temporalis, geniohyoid.

20. Hypothyroidism affects dental development by A. causing microdontia. B. delaying the eruption timetable. C. causing sclerotic bone to form over the occlusal surface of erupting teeth. D. accelerating the eruption timetable.

21. The lingual nerve contributes sensory fibers to the 1. tongue. 2. lingual surface of the mandible. 3. floor of the mouth. 4. mandibular posterior teeth. A. (1) (2) (3) B. (1) and (3) C. (2) and (4) D. (4) only E. All of the above.

22. The local anesthetic lidocaine is an A. amide. B. ester. C. aldehyde. D. acid.


23. Which antibiotic is chiefly bactericidal? A. Penicillin. B. Erythromycin. C. Tetracycline. D. Chloramphenicol. E. Clindamycin.

24. The periodontium is best able to tolerate forces directed to a tooth A. horizontally. B. laterally. C. obliquely. D. vertically.

25. Abnormalities in blood clotting may be associated with a deficiency of vitamin A. B12. B. C. C. E. D. K.
26. Molecular attraction between unlike substances is called A. adhesion. B. cohesion. C. syneresis. D. absorption.

27. Which of the following procedures must be done to ensure acceptable mercury hygiene in a dental office? A. Use of high volume evacuation when working with amalgam. B. Use of air spray when condensing, polishing or removing amalgam. C. Storage of amalgam scrap in a dry container with a lid. D. A quarterly mercury assessment for office personnel.


28. Which of the following is a possible cause for a low density radiograph (light film)? A. Cold developer. B. Over exposure. C. Improper safety light. D. Excessive developing time.

29. After setting, alginate impressions A. imbibe water. B. remain dimensionally stable for 12 hours. C. have higher tear strength than polyvinylsiloxane impressions. D. can be poured twice with little effect on accuracy of the resulting cast.

30. Cleft lip and palate usually result from A. failure of proper union of the median and lateral nasal processes. B. failure of the union of the median nasal process with the lateral nasal and maxillary processes. C. anhidrotic ectodermal dysplasia. D. failure of development of both the lateral nasal and maxillary processes.

drblack; I might not agree with you on two questions: 14 and 3. Thanks for posting this.

 

[bridge]

Hi
Answer for 3 is-
rounded axiopulpal line angle.

Answer for 14 is correct to to verify you can read the dental deck 2007 it very categorically states this.

 

[drblack]

Thanks bridge for correcting me.
Bridge as you mentioned that you are studying 2007 decks.Did you find a lot of difference from 2004 decks.Pls guide on that.

Hi
Answer for 3 is-
rounded axiopulpal line angle.

Answer for 14 is correct to to verify you can read the dental deck 2007 it very categorically states this.

 

[bridge]

Hi
I did not feel a big difference the same context a line or two added here and there and also the stuff just moved around atleast in the sections I have read so far.

 

[toothdoc14]

Hey
I want to join this discussion too
my target date is april end
My email id is [email protected]

 

[drblack]

Thanks Bridge for your feedback

Hi
I did not feel a big difference the same context a line or two added here and there and also the stuff just moved around atleast in the sections I have read so far.

 

[highbrow]

IM A NEW MEMBER....giving my ee for the first time,,,hope to crack it...but it gets scary if u talk to people....so need all the positivity....so guys lets get going......

 

[highbrow]

my email [email protected]

 

[fugi9]

I will also take EE in May 2007 but I have not started studying yet. I want to join the club. thanks

r u filipino? living in toronto and gonna take the EE? whats ur email addres?

 

[fugi9]

anyone from the scarb-markham area?? llke the pacific mall/ market village area?

 

[BDDS]

[email protected]

 

[dent1]

hi I also plan to take the NBDE can someone help me with the study materials like part 1 and 2 thanks my e-mail is [email protected]

 

[Ariean]

27. Which of the following procedures must be done to ensure acceptable mercury hygiene in a dental office? A. Use of high volume evacuation when working with amalgam. B. Use of air spray when condensing, polishing or removing amalgam. C. Storage of amalgam scrap in a dry container with a lid. D. A quarterly mercury assessment for office personnel.
ANSWER IS "A".. (Use of high volune evacuation when working with amalgam)

 

[Ariean]

Anyone taking AFK in Feb 2014 (This year..??)