Some diagrams show a bit of difference in the pupillary light reflex, so it brings up a question...
The reflex is bilateral because there is communication to the other side, no matter which eye light is shown in. However, some diagrams show this bilateral communication occurring from the stimulated pretectal nucleus to the contralateral pretectal nucleus and some show the communication bypassing the contralateral pretectal nucleus and synapsing directly on the contralateral EW nucleus (FA).
This brings up the question of what would happen if there was dysfunction in the contralateral pretectal nuclei. If it bypasses and goes directly to contralateral EW, there would still be bilateral reflex. If it indeed goes across to the opposite dysfunctional pretectal nucleus, then I would assume there wouldn't be a contralateral reflex.
Which is correct?
Thanks!
The reflex is bilateral because there is communication to the other side, no matter which eye light is shown in. However, some diagrams show this bilateral communication occurring from the stimulated pretectal nucleus to the contralateral pretectal nucleus and some show the communication bypassing the contralateral pretectal nucleus and synapsing directly on the contralateral EW nucleus (FA).
This brings up the question of what would happen if there was dysfunction in the contralateral pretectal nuclei. If it bypasses and goes directly to contralateral EW, there would still be bilateral reflex. If it indeed goes across to the opposite dysfunctional pretectal nucleus, then I would assume there wouldn't be a contralateral reflex.
Which is correct?
Thanks!
