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If f(x)=x, the inverse of f, f^-1, could be represented by?
The answer given is f^-1(x) = x
I thought it would be f^-1(x) = y???
Anyone know how this answer was obtained. Its a Barrons question, and we all know about Barrons, so Im thinking they could be wrong?
The answer given is f^-1(x) = x
I thought it would be f^-1(x) = y???
Anyone know how this answer was obtained. Its a Barrons question, and we all know about Barrons, so Im thinking they could be wrong?