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Why is it that the stats for DO schools (avg MCAT etc.) are lower than the allopathic ones? From what I understand, the DO approach teaches what the MD's learn, as well as osteopathic methods, so it seems they are almost learning more than MD's, yet the avg stats of their admitted are lower...why so?
And forget "flaming" me...I'm seriously just asking a question, and for some reason everyone is extra sensitive on this board, so please respect the fact that this is a legitimate question and not meant to be rude or "trollish." I'm honestly just curious..
And forget "flaming" me...I'm seriously just asking a question, and for some reason everyone is extra sensitive on this board, so please respect the fact that this is a legitimate question and not meant to be rude or "trollish." I'm honestly just curious..

. As an insecure pre-med, we don't want to hear you trying to convince yourself that DO is the route for you since you couldn't get into an MD school
. If you seriously have questions do us a favor and search the topic and see what has been said before
. After that, if there is something that you don't understand come back and ask.
. This isn't mean to be rude, but it gets old with the same topic popping up several times a week. I am sure you can realize why that would be. 
